[Wittrs] Re: Understanding Dualism

  • From: "SWM" <SWMirsky@xxxxxxx>
  • To: wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Wed, 25 Aug 2010 02:53:25 -0000

--- In Wittrs@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "gabuddabout" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> --- In WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "walto" <wittrsamr@> wrote:
> >
> >
> >
> > --- In Wittrs@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
> > >
> >
> > > He does say it would be better to drop the categories except that his 
> > > article was written in response to the accusation that his position IS 
> > > property dualism.
>
> So he is condemned to the categories just by responding that he's not a 
> property dualist--so he must be, yada, yada..
>
>

What ARE you talking about?

> > > As part of that response he asserted that there is no difference, at 
> > > bottom, between property dualism and substance dualism.
>
>
> At least one specific form of, i.e., Chalmers version which is the 
> epiphenomenal view of consciousness that Searle thinks mistaken.  Chalmers 
> thinks consciousness is real while doing absolutely no work--> and that 
> amounts to a form of substance dualism.


I don't think it's wise to trust your account of Chalmers' position and, since 
I am only partially acquainted with it I shall say no more.


>  Other epiphenomenalists may espouse something like a form of mysterianism in 
> the follwing way:  No amount of empirical research is going to net us exactly 
> how some physical system is conscious, consciousness being some subjective 
> category that can't be touched via third person points of view.  You might 
> even find Dennett here given that he doesn't deny he's conscious sometimes.  
> In fact, Dennett's reason for thinking strong AI viable is by denying that
> minds have semantics


Or your account of Dennett's position with whom I have more than passing 
acquaintance myself!



> (proposed functionalism of content even though you may never grasp what this 
> means no matter how many times I explain why functional explanation


Oy.


> for Searle is not good enough science for a science of mind, including 
> cognitive science as well as far as Fodor is concerned, but never mind this 
> as always) is exactly as mysterian as other property dualists who claim not 
> to be substance dualists. Searle would say that that can't be an a priori 
> argument for the futility of searching > for empirical generalizations 
> concerning NCCs.


This is a mish-mosh Budd. I'm sorry.


>  So, plenty of property dualists who are not necessarily substance dualists, 
> including Dennett, while Searle is explaining why we need not use this 
> outmoded vocabulary anymore.  Can he pull it off?  Well, he needs readers who 
> get him right, firstly.
>
>
>

From here on you appear to be responding to Walter so I'll stay out of the rest 
of it. Better him than me.

SWM



<snip>

> Walter:

> > Here's what I think about this:
> >
> > (1) There are no property dualists of the type Searle disses in his paper.
> >
>

> Chalmers would be a counterexample to this claim.
>
>
> > Because (2) what he there calls "property dualists" are, as he points at 
> > the end of his paper actually substance dualists.  (They've got different 
> > "cake layers.")
>

> Chalmers's version of propery dualism is to allow for consciousness as a 
> feature (an epiphenomenal one) of the world that does no causal work.  
> Traditional substance dualists try to have it both ways--nonphysical 
> substance sometimes interfering with the physical world.  Chalmers' version 
> amounts to a substance dualism, too, even if not a traditional one.  Maybe 
> that's a new thing to be learned by noticing a possible taxonomy of issues, 
> like the famous C.D. Broad's 15 or so positions in philosophy of mind.
> >

> > (3) On a more traditional definition of "property dualism" (i.e. causal, 
> > but not what he calls "ontological reducibility"), he actually IS a 
> > property dualist as am I (and, I'm guessing all the non-computationalists 
> > who aren't Cartesians).
>

> But he doesn't want to count as one even though you refuse to go along with 
> his preferred vocabulary.  Causal reducibility without ontological 
> reducibilty does not necessarily entail property dualism.  Maybe it does by 
> fiat.  But the point is that there are no more physical properties to account 
> for other than those of brains to get consciousness as "something" (some 
> cake-level, middle-sized frontier of brain juice).  And just because we want 
> to refer to ontological subjectivity as irreducible from an ontological point 
> of view, it is the causal reducibility which Searle would a Walter to 
> understand as a position that is not property dualism:
>

> 1. That rock is wet.  Wetness doesn't amount to property dualism.
>

> 2. That brain is currently conscious.  Consciousness doesn't amount to 
> property dualism--it's just a state it may be in.
>

> 3. That we inherit the Cartesian vocabulary makes it sound like consciousness 
> names that very different substance Descartes was talking about.  The point 
> is that it needn't.
>

> 4. So that this isn't merely a quibble about using different vocabularies for 
> saying the same thing:
>

> 5. On Searle's view, good science of mind would include looking for NCCs.
>
> 6. On a property dualist's view of the Chalmers stamp:  Why bother if 
> consciousness is an epiphenomenon?
>
> 7. On Walter's sense of the traditional view of property dualism amounting to 
> the view of causal reducibilty without ontological reduction, there is a 
> venerable tradition of nonreductive physicalists, of which he maintains both 
> that Searle and himself are two.
>
> 8.  So Walter is perfectly right in his 4. below.
>

> 9.  I don't think, contra Walter's 5., that Searle is making too big of a 
> mess.  I refer to 3. above.
>

> So 10.  I think Searle makes some sense out of how Chalmers's version of 
> property dualism is a kind of substance dualism.  And how the inheritance of 
> Cartesian vocabulary makes some other forms of traditional property dualism 
> look the same way (many, like Armstrong and some qualia-deniers, including 
> Dennett), even though nonreductive physicalists think they are still 
> physicalists--let's drop the Cartesian categories and stop calling 
> nonreductive physicalism a form of property dualism.  Ontological 
> subjectivity may be a unique thing in the world, but so is everything else, 
> individualistically speaking.  Getting rid of the outmoded terminology would 
> be a step in a direction that helps others see exactly what Walter ends up 
> claiming:  The taxonomy issues don't make a difference--unless they do.
>

> Hence Searle's paper.  I think it was a help in understanding why Searle 
> thinks he is not a property dualist.  Without it, then, like Walter, maybe I 
> would refer to him as a property dualist just because the original property 
> dualists are exactly of his stamp:  causal reducibility without ontological 
> reducibility.
>

> But it is still misleading:  Searle is trying to say that consciousness is as 
> ordinary a feature of a brain as digestion is of a stomach, even if it is a 
> unique feature entailing ontological subjectivity.
>

> Others seize on the traditional Cartesian categories in order to call such a 
> position dualist.  This is even after Searle thought they might have been 
> able to grasp his prose..  That they won't out of sheer stubbornness is 
> another matter--I even heard it said that one way to "refute" someone's 
> thesis is simply not to consider it.  One way of doing such would be to call 
> it by the name of an issue that doesn't make a difference.  A taxonomic issue.
>

> Funny how one can have it both ways here:  Calling it a taxonomic issue that 
> doesn't make a difference is one thing, while such calling is supposed to 
> make a difference in terms of our not reading Searle's paper with interest 
> because it boils down to a taxonomic issue.  That the taxonomic issue makes 
> it tough for Searle to get his point across, on the other hand, seems more 
> than a taxonomic issue; even a reason for reading his paper on why, after all 
> the taxonomic issues, he's STILL not a property dualist.
>
>

> > So, (4) traditional property dualists need not be substance dualists, and 
> > none of them actually are--including Searle himself.
> >
> > And (5) While I agree with almost all the substantial points in his paper, 
> > I believe it makes a mess of the classifications, largely because it's so 
> > important to him not be considered a dualist.
> >

> > (6) None of these taxonomy issues make any difference to anything.
> >
> > W
>
> Thanks for a very thoughtful post, Walter.  Correct me on anything you find 
> misleading or wrong concerning what I wrote above.
>
> Cheers,
> Budd

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