[Wittrs] Re: Understanding Dualism

  • From: "gabuddabout" <gabuddabout@xxxxxxxxx>
  • To: wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Wed, 25 Aug 2010 00:11:06 -0000


--- In WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "walto" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
>
>
> --- In Wittrs@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
> >
>
> > He does say it would be better to drop the categories except that his 
> > article was written in response to the accusation that his position IS 
> > property dualism.

So he is condemned to the categories just by responding that he's not a 
property dualist--so he must be, yada, yada..


> > As part of that response he asserted that there is no difference, at 
> > bottom, between property dualism and substance dualism.


At least one specific form of, i.e., Chalmers version which is the 
epiphenomenal view of consciousness that Searle thinks mistaken.  Chalmers 
thinks consciousness is real while doing absolutely no work--and that amounts 
to a form of substance dualism.  Other epiphenomenalists may espouse something 
like a form of mysterianism in the follwing way:  No amount of empirical 
research is going to net us exactly how some physical system is conscious, 
consciousness being some subjective category that can't be touched via third 
person points of view.  You might even find Dennett here given that he doesn't 
deny he's conscious sometimes.  In fact, Dennett's reason for thinking strong 
AI viable is by denying that minds have semantics (proposed functionalism of 
content even though you may never grasp what this means no matter how many 
times I explain why functional explanation for Searle is not good enough 
science for a science of mind, including cognitive science as well as far as 
Fodor is concerned, but never mind this as always) is exactly as mysterian as 
other property dualists who claim not to be substance dualists. Searle would 
say that that can't be an a priori argument for the futility of searching for 
empirical generalizations concerning NCCs.  So, plenty of property dualists who 
are not necessarily substance dualists, including Dennett, while Searle is 
explaining why we need not use this outmoded vocabulary anymore.  Can he pull 
it off?  Well, he needs readers who get him right, firstly.



> > Walter, whether he likes me to reference his words or not, asserted that 
> > Searle wrongly characterized "property dualism" and that, if so, Searle 
> > WOULD actually be rightly classified as a "property dualist". I added, in 
> > my response to Walter that, in light of my agreement with Searle's own 
> > point that property dualism is, finally, just another form of substance 
> > dualism, if it is dualism at all, then Searle would also be a substance 
> > dualist.


> Here's what I think about this:
>
> (1) There are no property dualists of the type Searle disses in his paper.
>

Chalmers would be a counterexample to this claim.


> Because (2) what he there calls "property dualists" are, as he points at the 
> end of his paper actually substance dualists.  (They've got different "cake 
> layers.")

Chalmers's version of propery dualism is to allow for consciousness as a 
feature (an epiphenomenal one) of the world that does no causal work.  
Traditional substance dualists try to have it both ways--nonphysical substance 
sometimes interfering with the physical world.  Chalmers' version amounts to a 
substance dualism, too, even if not a traditional one.  Maybe that's a new 
thing to be learned by noticing a possible taxonomy of issues, like the famous 
C.D. Broad's 15 or so positions in philosophy of mind.
>
> (3) On a more traditional definition of "property dualism" (i.e. causal, but 
> not what he calls "ontological reducibility"), he actually IS a property 
> dualist as am I (and, I'm guessing all the non-computationalists who aren't 
> Cartesians).

But he doesn't want to count as one even though you refuse to go along with his 
preferred vocabulary.  Causal reducibility without ontological reducibilty does 
not necessarily entail property dualism.  Maybe it does by fiat.  But the point 
is that there are no more physical properties to account for other than those 
of brains to get consciousness as "something" (some cake-level, middle-sized 
frontier of brain juice).  And just because we want to refer to ontological 
subjectivity as irreducible from an ontological point of view, it is the causal 
reducibility which Searle would a Walter to understand as a position that is 
not property dualism:

1. That rock is wet.  Wetness doesn't amount to property dualism.

2. That brain is currently conscious.  Consciousness doesn't amount to property 
dualism--it's just a state it may be in.

3. That we inherit the Cartesian vocabulary makes it sound like consciousness 
names that very different substance Descartes was talking about.  The point is 
that it needn't.

4. So that this isn't merely a quibble about using different vocabularies for 
saying the same thing:

5. On Searle's view, good science of mind would include looking for NCCs.

6. On a property dualist's view of the Chalmers stamp:  Why bother if 
consciousness is an epiphenomenon?

7. On Walter's sense of the traditional view of property dualism amounting to 
the view of causal reducibilty without ontological reduction, there is a 
venerable tradition of nonreductive physicalists, of which he maintains both 
that Searle and himself are two.

8.  So Walter is perfectly right in his 4. below.

9.  I don't think, contra Walter's 5., that Searle is making too big of a mess. 
 I refer to 3. above.

So 10.  I think Searle makes some sense out of how Chalmers's version of 
property dualism is a kind of substance dualism.  And how the inheritance of 
Cartesian vocabulary makes some other forms of traditional property dualism 
look the same way (many, like Armstrong and some qualia-deniers, including 
Dennett), even though nonreductive physicalists think they are still 
physicalists--let's drop the Cartesian categories and stop calling nonreductive 
physicalism a form of property dualism.  Ontological subjectivity may be a 
unique thing in the world, but so is everything else, individualistically 
speaking.  Getting rid of the outmoded terminology would be a step in a 
direction that helps others see exactly what Walter ends up claiming:  The 
taxonomy issues don't make a difference--unless they do.

Hence Searle's paper.  I think it was a help in understanding why Searle thinks 
he is not a property dualist.  Without it, then, like Walter, maybe I would 
refer to him as a property dualist just because the original property dualists 
are exactly of his stamp:  causal reducibility without ontological reducibility.

But it is still misleading:  Searle is trying to say that consciousness is as 
ordinary a feature of a brain as digestion is of a stomach, even if it is a 
unique feature entailing ontological subjectivity.

Others seize on the traditional Cartesian categories in order to call such a 
position dualist.  This is even after Searle thought they might have been able 
to grasp his prose..  That they won't out of sheer stubbornness is another 
matter--I even heard it said that one way to "refute" someone's thesis is 
simply not to consider it.  One way of doing such would be to call it by the 
name of an issue that doesn't make a difference.  A taxonomic issue.

Funny how one can have it both ways here:  Calling it a taxonomic issue that 
doesn't make a difference is one thing, while such calling is supposed to make 
a difference in terms of our not reading Searle's paper with interest because 
it boils down to a taxonomic issue.  That the taxonomic issue makes it tough 
for Searle to get his point across, on the other hand, seems more than a 
taxonomic issue; even a reason for reading his paper on why, after all the 
taxonomic issues, he's STILL not a property dualist.


> So, (4) traditional property dualists need not be substance dualists, and 
> none of them actually are--including Searle himself.
>
> And (5) While I agree with almost all the substantial points in his paper, I 
> believe it makes a mess of the classifications, largely because it's so 
> important to him not be considered a dualist.
>
> (6) None of these taxonomy issues make any difference to anything.
>
> W

Thanks for a very thoughtful post, Walter.  Correct me on anything you find 
misleading or wrong concerning what I wrote above.

Cheers,
Budd

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