Robert Paul suggests that one can have an inalienable right to something but have no need for it. I can make no sense of this. Take for instance the right to life as protection from violence. This right does not depend on whether at any particular moment I need the police because the right pertains to my personhood as opposed to any contingency. Inalienable rights arise from who we are as persons, not from circumstances. It may be that government grants rights, such as to healthcare and education, rights which people like Melinda Gates have no need for, but these are not inalienable rights and would be better off not being referred to as rights. If one doesn't need a right, it can't be an inalienable right. Robert: "One could reasonably say that I have a right to free speech even though as a matter of fact nothing I say offends anybody or goes counter to anyone else’s beliefs." However, the right to free speech, which isn't an inalienable right, does not depend on the content of one's speech. Rather, it is a right that arises out of a particular politics which can only function when people are largely free to say what they like, even when what they say is banal or inane. While the right to free speech is not an inalienable right, it has the form of one in that it is a right one has even if one doesn't bother speaking out. Robert: "I’m not even saying that everyone does have a right to an education, although I would like to bring it about that something like that were true." But this is precisely the state of affairs that cannot be true of an inalienable right. One has these rights regardless of what government is in place or the state of that government. Inalienable rights derive from personhood, not contingent circumstances. Inalienable rights do not depend on whether one wants to exercise them or not because they are not dependent on one's volition or desire. We do not ask whether potential victims want to be harmed before stopping a potential murderer. Robert: "I’m not talking about how it is or ought to be in other times and places but about rights in the US only." Fine. But if these rights are to be derived from the notion of an inalienable right, then the issue is necessarily a universal one. Robert: "I doubt [the conditions under which the government satisfies its duty to the right of maintenance of life]can be decided by sitting in a room with the shades drawn." And what do you suppose the Supremes are doing when they decide? Of course 'sitting in a room with the shades drawn' is an important part of working these issues out, though not all that is needed. Robert: "That a right is universal, absolute, or inalienable doesn’t mean that it applies only to goods and conditions that cannot be described, lest the right suddenly become itself contingent." Of course not. What makes it contingent is its application. How does one determine that a right bears on a situation without reference to goods? As always, thanks to Robert for his responses. Sincerely, Phil Enns Toronto, ON ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html