[lit-ideas] Re: Hartiana

  • From: "Richard Henninge" <RichardHenninge@xxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Thu, 19 Mar 2015 05:55:14 +0100

  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Donal McEvoy 
  To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx 
  Sent: Wednesday, March 18, 2015 11:54 PM
  Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: Hartiana


  Donal writes: ...


  A short example from English law may illustrate this last point. There is an 
English law prohibiting discrimination on grounds of gender and another law 
prohibiting discrimination on the grounds of pregnancy: and they both use the 
same formula of prohibiting "less favourable" treatment on these grounds. I 
know of an example where a top law firm here has advised as if these two laws 
are to the same effect - which might seem to be the case if we take a "literal" 
approach, and conclude, from the fact they use the same wording, that they must 
have the same "meaning" and therefore the same effect. 



  This turns out to be utterly incorrect: but it should be obvious to a skilled 
lawyer, just looking at the two sections, that it could hardly be correct: for 
the simple reason that pregnancy is gender-specific, so if the pregnancy-law 
were to the same effect as the gender-law, it would be an utterly redundant law 
- because whatever was pregnancy-discrimination would ipso facto be gender 
discrimination. 



  The correct interpretation arises from considering why we need a special law 
for pregnancy - what special problems, beyond general gender discrimination, is 
such a law seeking to solve? Then we may see that the expression "less 
favourable" leaves out the standard by which this is measured ["less 
favourable" than what?]: so that if that standard differs, between pregnancy 
cases and other gender-specific cases, the pregnancy-law must have a different 
effect even though it has identical wording. And the rationale of having a 
special law for pregnancy must be that the standard is different.

  All would be well and good if Donal had not forgotten that, though the 
special law for pregnancy may indeed "seek ... to solve" special problems 
"beyond gender discrimination," it nevertheless invokes the same standard as 
the law on the latter and therefore has "the same effect." Donal, true to his 
problem-solving approach, claims to "see" that the expression "less favourable" 
leaves out "the standard by which this [discriminatory treatment] is measured 
('less favourable' than what?)," yet it is specious to say that any two words 
"leave out" the other words in the sentence and context in which they are used, 
in the sections of law under comparison. Donal's self-vaunted problem-solving 
approach acts as if it is above "mere words," that it alone among various (more 
or less silly) approaches can "show" the true reasoning behind the law, but he 
can only do so by radical reductions-to-absurdity of all "conceptual analysis," 
often by encumbering its explanatory attempts with ironic/skeptical quotation 
marks vainly proposed by "mere-men," half man, half something 
Darwinianly-speaking fishy.

  A Digression: All readers of Donal know that he is a master of the language, 
but I have installed, so to speak, an automatic response to his writing with 
the mental equivalent of bells and whistles that go off whenever his words, to 
my thinking at least, begin to get the better of him, for instance in this one 
sentence-paragraph in which there are two colons, two "because" clauses, and 
two uses of his beloved "utterly."

  This turns out to be utterly incorrect: but it should be obvious to a skilled 
lawyer, just looking at the two sections, that it could hardly be correct: for 
the simple reason that pregnancy is gender-specific, so if the pregnancy-law 
were to the same effect as the gender-law, it would be an utterly redundant law 
- because whatever was pregnancy-discrimination would ipso facto be gender 
discrimination.


  My problem is with that colon (colon #2). It's almost always odd in an 
English sentence to have two colons. I admit that I read over that colon; I 
ignored it. I thought that was the point he was trying to make. It gets 
confusing because of Donal's hyper-adjectivalization: with him things are never 
(just) "incorrect," they're "utterly incorrect." He uses "merely" as a 
subliminal de minimis argument against anything that doesn't suit him. I tried 
replacing "for the simple reason that" (in which Donal characteristically, and 
probably unconsciously) hyperbolically introduces the first of the two 
"because" clauses by larding the cause/reason with the tendentious word 
"simple" (with a hard-to-ignore implication that his audience tend toward 
simpleton status) by "because." But then, who is being simplistic here? 

  A Digression Within The Digression: And what is it with Donal and italics! 
They are also endemic apparently. Ask Phatic. Like a good lawyer, a "skilled 
lawyer," "looking at" (not exactly reading, not merely reading) "the two 
sections," Donal can both mean that it is obvious that pregnancy is 
gender-specific or that this silly "top law firm here" that "has advised as if 
these two laws are to the same effect" has simpl(isticall)y assumed that to be 
correct "for the simple reason that [i.e. because] pregnancy is 
gender-specific."  It is imaginable that the "top law firm" assumed that, 
because pregnancy is gender-specific, the effect of the law is the same. 

  Donal writes: "A so-called "literal" interpretation is itself a construct 
with its basis in a tradition and not a mere product of the inherent meanings 
of words or the like. Lawyers can forget this because, after being trained in 
that tradition, they can become blind that it is their training that guides 
them to the so-called "literal". And they can also make gross mistakes because 
they latch onto a "literal" interpretation while being blind to the problems 
that the relevant wording is seeking to solve."

  With all Donal's heavy lifting, in the end it is as if an elephant has given 
birth to a mouse: the silly "top law firm" has not noticed ("less favourable" 
than what?) that the pregnancy-law's set of potentially disadvantaged persons 
is not coextensive with that of the gender-law since the former also includes 
members of the same gender, i.e. women who are treated less favourably than 
other women on the grounds of their pregnancy. But Donal doesn't spell that 
out. He practically has to leave it vague and write ambiguously for it to at 
least sound and look like he and his approach are solving (serious) problems 
(like the one that I just solved by spelling out the reason for having this 
separate law).

  The above is also a fair example of "legal logic". And it illustrates the 
potential flaws in a "literal" approach that loses sight of the over-riding 
need for a problem-solving approach.


  And my above is a fair example of a more competent "legal logic" that 
illustrates the danger of not cleaving to a fairly "literal" approach and of 
instead allowing oneself to engage in the hubristic overarching and 
over(rough)riding fantasies of an evolutionary problem-solving approach that 
prides itself in alone knowing or being capable of arriving at the real 
rationale of the law. 

  Richard Henninge
  University of Mainz

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