Robert Paul wrote: "'The police have no right…' can be understood as meaning that the police may not enter one's home without a search warrant, and this may be all that needs to be said. However, by way of explanation of why they may not one can appeal to the Bill of Rights." There is no problem with 'The police have no right to .. ' because the word/sign 'right' does not refer us to talk of rights. There is no need to ask 'What right is in operation here?'. Instead, we ask 'What can or can't the police do in ...'. The problem arises when we think that any explanation must appeal to something other than the operation of government, that '.. no right to .. ' must refer to something. This is the same move that Wittgenstein rejected in TLP, namely, that a sign of a function was confused with a sign of something real. I stand by my earlier statement: Any talk of rights is incoherent. Sincerely, Phil Enns Toronto, ON ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html