--- In WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "SWM" <wittrsamr@...> wrote: > > --- In Wittrs@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, "gabuddabout" <wittrsamr@> wrote: > > > > Stuart writes: > > > > "I have also explained, numerous times, that > > Searle speaks of a constitutive claim as causal and I have said it is THAT > > sense of causal that I think is at work here." > > > > So, when in the third premise Searle states that syntax is _neither_ > > constitutive of _nor_ sufficient for semantics, it's as if we can read him > > as merely saying the same thing (two noncausality claims for the price of > > one) even though there is a "neither/nor" there? > > > > The text works both ways (as either/or or this and that). That's the point > about it being ambiguous. I disagree. I maintain that you wrongly see the text as working both ways so you can derive an objection. > > > I don't buy that. I also, a fortiori, can't buy the two-for-one sale on > > both being identity claims. So, six years ago I thought you were having > > trouble reading English or were flaming, i.e., it just seems obvious, > > contra Gordon, that "insufficient for" is to be read as "insuff. to cause" > > and "doesn't constitute" is being used as a type of nonidentity claim. > > > > Note that you think that "insufficient for" works as a "non-causal claim". I > do, too, of course though, for my part, I think it works both ways (allowing > both non-identity and non-causal readings). And I object. Your claim just sounds nuts to me. "Insufficient for" means "can't DO something to cause x. >Now Gordon says he sees only a non-identity claim on both sides of the premise >while Joe avers that he sees something entirely different from either identity >or causality being invoked by the use of "constitutes". They are playing a game with you or are in a serious state of confusion. Benighted or lying, again. > > So what we have here are four different people reading this four different > ways. I wouldn't conclude that because I don't you three CAN be that retarded. So lying and playing juvenile word games. > Doesn't THAT suggest to you that the text is ambiguous? No. > And doesn't it also suggest that, if so, then the distinction between the > causal and identity issues IS being blurred by the way the third premise is > phrased since, between four people, we can get so little agreement as to the > way the simple statements contained in the third premise should be > interpreted? No. You guys are just retarded to think you can generate such ambiguity and get away with it. > > Doesn't that, alone, support my point that the text is sufficiently ambiguous > as to be equivocal in its usage? Absolutely not. Cheers, Budd > ========================================= Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/