I just had a thought. (I know, beginner's luck.) Consider the claim: "I can refer to a sensation by the use of 'S' only if I can check my use of 'S'." Is there a claim here as to a necessary condition for the possibility of something? Or is this simply an empirical, and hence, contingent, matter? Consider now the following claim: "Philosophical problems cannot be solved via appeal to experience." Compare with: "Odd coincidence: every time we've tried to solve a philosophical problem via appeal to experience, we've failed. We must re-double our efforts here." One last one: "If one tried to advance *theses* in philosophy, it would never be possible to debate them, because everyone would agree to them." What kind of a claim is one that denies the very possibility of debate regarding a philosophical thesis? Could it be one that W is presupposing a necessary condition of debate that is not met by philosophical "theses."? Walter O. MUN Quoting wokshevs@xxxxxx: > There seem to be two different questions here: > > 1. What did W himself actually believe regarding the status of language > games > for the possibility of meaning and knowledge? > > 2. What does his account of language games itself presuppose regarding the > possibility of meaning and knowledge? > > We distinguish between the 2 questions because it is possible that W did not > himnself understand what his account of language games actually entails. > > Perhaps a question to begin with here is: "What possibilities for meaning > and > knowledge are there independent of the construct of language games?" Assume > that human beings did not/ could not engage in language games, what would > the > "meaning" of a word or a statement itself mean? I believe W recognized the > force of this question. > > The remarks garnered together by Malcom and Von Wright as "On certainty" are > surely a testament to transcendental philosophy. The fundamental and > pervasive > claim running throughout those remarks is that if you doubted the validity > of > "hinge propositions," you would not be able to coherently doubt at all, nor > would you be able to make any knowledge-claims. W claimed Moore "knew > nothing," > despite his hand waving, precisely because Moore occluded the necessity and > universality of such certainties for genuine knowledge-claims. > > We have here an interesting tug of war: was Witters a transcendental > philosopher > who claimed that our language games constituted the possibility for meaning > and > knowledge or was he a cultural anthropologist in the tradition of Geertz et > al? > > > Walter O. > MUN > > > > Quoting Robert Paul <rpaul@xxxxxxxx>: > > > Walter asks > > > > > Would anyone know of a source on Wittgenstein who examines why W > believed > > that > > > meaning and knowledge are not possible independent of language games, > and > > what > > > W specifically meant by that claim? > > > > This may be a futile search, for that is something he did not believe; > > that is, there are no grounds for attributing such a belief to him. > > > > There's very little epistemology in Wittgenstein, unless one counts what > > he says about certainty, and claims to know such-and-such, in Über > > Gewissheit. > > > > Robert Paul > > ------------------------------------------------------------------ > > To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, > > digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html > > > > > > ------------------------------------------------------------------ > To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, > digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html > ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html