[lit-ideas] Re: Sounds right to me

  • From: Eric Dean <ecdean99@xxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: lit-ideas <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Mon, 15 Dec 2008 14:41:16 +0000

Walter's questions about language games start from presumptions I think 
Wittgenstein was at pains to preclude.

As I read Wittgenstein, the notion of 'language game' was never intended to be 
a rigorously defined technical construct.  It was, rather, what he seemed to 
see as a suggestive image, one that invites the analyst to consider what people 
are doing when they communicate, rather than focusing on what they are saying.

The notion of 'game' served, in that context, several purposes.  Every game has 
its rules, and every game's rules are arbitrary in an important sense.  The 
only answer to "Why does the knight move this way" is "because that's how 
knights move."  In general, adults don't expect there to be further answers.  
It is a concrete illustration of his dictum that explanations stop somewhere.

Second, apart from involving human beings and having some notion of rules, 
games differ so much from one another that it's hard to see makes them all 
games.  What exactly do cribbage and ice hockey have in common?  Games bear 
family resemblances to one another, and the family of games is pretty 
capacious.  I think Wittgenstein meant for us not to be searching for exactly 
what the language game is that is under way.

Finally, the 'meaning' in a game is not to be found by examining the rules nor 
even, generally, in examining how the rules constrain the choices before the 
players.  It is, instead, to be found in how the players interact with one 
another through the actions offered by the rules -- the meaning is in what 
they're doing, not in syntactic analysis the rules might offer.

Wittgenstein's referring to language games in talking about language was not, I 
believe, intended as a "theory of language" or something else that could be 
tested with empirical research.  It was, instead, intended as a suggestive 
metaphor that might lead those who caught its sense to a reconsideration of how 
they think about language.

Walter's first question, as I read it, appears to presume that "language games" 
are definable things, which I do not think Wittgenstein actually believed.  

Walter asks: "What did W himself actually believe regarding the status of 
language games for the possibility of meaning and knowledge?"  Something that 
can have a 'status' in this sense, is something that can be defined 
independently of that status, i.e. something which can be identified and then 
the status of which can be assessed.  This is decidedly not what I think W was 
trying to describe.

I'm not entirely sure what Walter is asking in the rest of his question.  If he 
was asking what connection W drew between language games and the possibility of 
meaning and knowledge, I would suspect that the answer is that W in a way had 
no question about whether meaning and knowledge were possible, since there are 
frequent non-technical, practical circumstances in which we ask "what do you 
mean?" and "how do you know?", questions which are widely accepted as 
legitimate and questions which often can receive answers that the questioners 
accept as legitimate.  In that sense, of course meaning and knowledge are 
possible, though exactly what we're calling 'possible' with that statement 
might be intractably elusive, because the myriad situations in which "what do 
you mean?" or "how do you know?" might legitimately be asked bear only a family 
resemblance to one another.

But the bottom line is that the question I think Walter's asking has 
misunderstood what Wittgenstein is doing when he talks about language games.  
He is not expounding a theory of language, he is inviting attention to a facet 
of what is happening when we talk about language.

So when Walter goes on to ask "What possibilities for meaning and knowledge are 
there independent of the construct of language games?" I think he greatly 
misses the point.  The short answer to the question is "none" -- but to give 
that answer is to acknowledge that the question makes sense when the entire 
point of the exercise with language games has been to encourage setting aside 
the sort of analysis that leads to those kinds of questions.

W goes on to ask, "Assume that human beings did not/could not engage in 
language games, what would the 'meaning' of a word or statement itself mean?"  
Again, the simple answer is that assuming human beings could not engage in 
language games is assuming human beings have no language.  The meaning of the 
question seems to have been assumed away with its assumption.  But more 
importantly, the idea that such a question is useful is exactly what W was 
calling into question.

So, in closing, I *don't* think W saw the force of the question.

Regards,
Eric Dean
Washington DC

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