[lit-ideas] Re: The de-islamization of Europe

  • From: "Andreas Ramos" <andreas@xxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Sun, 21 Jan 2007 15:17:10 -0800

From: "Lawrence Helm" <lawrencehelm@xxxxxxxxxxxx>

And it is absurd to criticism Logic.  That accomplishes nothing.

Lawrence, I dissected one of your "logical" arguments. Maybe you oversaw it. Here it is again:

You argue:

Saddam was Islamic.
Saddam was militant.
Therefore Saddam was Islamic militant.

Where is the error? You're not checking if the definitions apply.

1) Saddam was not Islamic. He was secular. Look up the theory and history of 
the Baathist
Party.

2) You use the word "militant" in two senses: using a military against his 
neighbors and
using a military against the West. He fits the first sense, so you use that in 
the second
sense. An attack on Kuwait becomes an attack on Florida.

Thus, the proper argument is:

A) Saddam was secular.
B) Saddam was a military threat only to his neighbors
= Therefore Saddam was a secular military threat to his neighbors.

But you twist this into:

C) Saddam was secular.
D) Saddam was a military threat only to his neighbors.
= Therefore Saddam was an Islamic military threat to the West.

By mixing up definitions, you produce a conclusion that is not supported by the 
argument.

yrs,
andreas
www.andreas.com

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