[geocentrism] Re: Calendar query
- From: "Cheryl" <c.battles@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: <geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sun, 3 Apr 2005 08:46:48 -0400
I don't think this explanation would apply in this case. When speaking of a
prophecy that refers to an amount of time, you'd have to have three days and
three nights specifically, not figuratively, to fulfil the prophecy.
----- Original Message -----
From: "Robert Bennett" <robert.bennett@xxxxxxx>
To: <geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Sent: Saturday, April 02, 2005 11:57 PM
Subject: [geocentrism] Re: Calendar query
> Here's another solution that makes sense.
>
> "three days and three nights", in Jewish terminology, did not necessarily
> imply a full period of three actual days and three actual nights as in
> modern English, but was simply a First Century colloquialism used to cover
> any part of the first and third days.
> The expression was always used with an equal number of days and nights; x
> days and x nights, as though for emphasis.
>
> Full discussion at:
> http://www.answering-islam.org.uk/Gilchrist/jonah.html#three
>
>
> RIP, JPII
>
> Robert
>
>> -----Original Message-----
>> From: geocentrism-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
>> [mailto:geocentrism-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx]On Behalf Of Cheryl
>> Sent: Saturday, April 02, 2005 5:39 PM
>> To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
>> Subject: [geocentrism] Re: Calendar query
>>
>>
>> I'm putting up an article on this subject that seems to have sensible
>> answers to everything -- namely that the crucifixion occurred in
>> AD 31 when
>> there were two Sabbaths. The only reason this question would be
>> important
>> to answer is that precise conformance to prophecy and accuracy of
>> the Bible
>> is at stake. I have no doubts about either. I'm sure there's a correct
>> explanation for what might appear to be a discrepancy. I'm not
>> sure which
>> it is, but the one below seems to make sense.
>> Cheryl
>>
>>
>>
>>
>
>
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