Here's another solution that makes sense. "three days and three nights", in Jewish terminology, did not necessarily imply a full period of three actual days and three actual nights as in modern English, but was simply a First Century colloquialism used to cover any part of the first and third days. The expression was always used with an equal number of days and nights; x days and x nights, as though for emphasis. Full discussion at: http://www.answering-islam.org.uk/Gilchrist/jonah.html#three RIP, JPII Robert > -----Original Message----- > From: geocentrism-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx > [mailto:geocentrism-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx]On Behalf Of Cheryl > Sent: Saturday, April 02, 2005 5:39 PM > To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx > Subject: [geocentrism] Re: Calendar query > > > I'm putting up an article on this subject that seems to have sensible > answers to everything -- namely that the crucifixion occurred in > AD 31 when > there were two Sabbaths. The only reason this question would be > important > to answer is that precise conformance to prophecy and accuracy of > the Bible > is at stake. I have no doubts about either. I'm sure there's a correct > explanation for what might appear to be a discrepancy. I'm not > sure which > it is, but the one below seems to make sense. > Cheryl > > > >