[Wittrs] Re: Linguistic Behavior: Allegations of Fallacy

  • From: "Cayuse" <z.z7@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Fri, 20 Nov 2009 13:14:06 -0000

Joseph Polanik wrote:
Cayuse wrote:
Firstly, you don't say how you are using the word "real", and so your
proposition that "nothing unreal experiences" is rather murky.
Secondly, your proposition says nothing about the experiential status
of "real things" -- it leaves as unspecified whether *all* "real
things" experience, or *no* "real thing" experiences, or *some* "real
things" experience and some do not, so as it stands it isn't useful
(unless its purpose is to confer "reality" upon "experiencers" by
sleight of hand). And finally, you don't say how you justify your
assertion that anything at all *experiences* -- a conviction that is
without application anyway. Your step 2 isn't looking very secure.

I've previously told you how I use 'real' and 'unreal':
whatever is is real (in some sense); consequently, since there is
nothing left over for 'unreal' to refer to, it is a word without a
referent.

So your claim that "nothing unreal experiences" says even less than I was giving it credit for.


the principle 'nothing unreal experiences' doesn't make any statement
about how many, if any, realities there are that experience. the only
way to prove this proposition false is to show that there is something
unreal that experiences. can you do that?

Why would I want to prove false a proposition that says nothing?


the conclusion drawn at step two, 'there is something that
experiences', implies only that there is at least one such
'something'.

And that is the claim that you have so far failed to support.
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