[Wittrs] Re: Linguistic Behavior: Allegations of Fallacy

  • From: "Cayuse" <z.z7@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Tue, 17 Nov 2009 12:41:59 -0000

Joseph Polanik wrote:
Cayuse wrote:
The logic of this argument is faulty (peitio principii).

how do you think that my statement (since nothing unreal can experience
anything at all, it follows that there is something that experiences.)
meets the criteria for classification as a peitio principii when it
assumes only the statement of fact you previously affirmed as true ---
there is experience?

"There is experience". No problem so far.

"There is something that experiences". There is a problem here stemming
from the linguistically grounded misconception that "I experience, therefore
I am the experiencer". Once this invalid argument is relinquished, there is
no longer any need to posit a "something" that experiences -- all we are
left with is the unproblematic statement that "there is experience".

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