Dear listers,
I'm wondering if time domain coupling coeff. must be equal or lower than
the freq. domain coupling? Assume in FD (Freq. Domain) at 100MHz the
coupling coeff. is x%, and zero at all other freq.s. Now if in TD (Time
Domain) the aggressor present a sine wave of 1Vpp@100MHz, then the TD
coupled noise will be 0.0xV@100MHz, right? If the aggressor contains any
freq. components other than 100MHz, then those additional freq.s will not
be coupled to the victim, hence the coupling coeff cannot be greater than
x%. Is above inference correct?
--
Best Regards,
Tramp
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