[Wittrs] Re: Conditions of Assertability: First-Person Self-Reference

  • From: "Cayuse" <z.z7@xxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Sat, 21 Nov 2009 16:35:29 -0000

Joseph Polanik wrote:
Cayuse wrote:
Joseph Polanik wrote:
in PI 403, there is a clear indication that self-referencing is used
to accurately identify the stream of experiences in which a certain
experience (pain) has arisen.

In what manner does the following passage help your case?:

PI 403: If I were to reserve the word "pain" solely for what I had
hitherto called "my pain", and others "L.W.'s pain", I should do
other people no injustice, so long as a notation were provided in
which the loss of the word "pain" in other connexions were somehow
supplied. Other people would still be pitied, treated by doctors and
so on. It would, of course, be /no/ objection to this mode of
expression to say: "But look here, other people have just the same
as you!" But what should I gain from this new kind of account?
Nothing. But after all neither does the solipsist /want/ any
practical advantage when he advances his view!

this passage indicates that converting an self-referencing expression
like 'my pain' into the non self-referencing expression 'pain' makes
one's language game indistinguishable from that of a solipsist.

I think this passage builds on the following:

PI 293. [...] That is to say: if we construe the grammar of the expression
of sensation on the model of 'object and designation' the object drops out
of consideration as irrelevant.

298. The very fact that we should so much like to say: "This is the
important thing" -- while we point privately to the sensation -- is enough
to shew how much we are inclined to say something which gives no
information.

304. "But you will surely admit that there is a difference between
pain-behavior accompanied by pain and pain-behavior without any pain?" --
Admit it? What greater difference could there be? -- "And yet you again and
again reach the conclusion that the sensation itself is a nothing." -- Not
at all. It is not a something, but not a nothing either! The conclusion
was only that nothing would serve just as well as a something about which
nothing could be said. We have only rejected the grammar which tries to
force itself on us here.
   The paradox disappears only if we make a radical break with the idea
that language always functions in one way, always serves the same purpose:
to convey thoughts -- which may be about houses, pains, good and evil, or
anything else you please.

311. "What difference could be greater?" -- In the case of pain I believe
that I can give myself a private exhibition of the difference. But I can
give anyone an exhibition of the difference between a broken and an unbroken
tooth. -- But for the private exhibition you don't have to give yourself
actual pain; it is enough to imagine it [...] This private exhibition is
an illusion.

I take LW's point to be that, in the case of sensations, language
is operating on a different principle to that of "object and designation"
-- i.e. pain isn't a "thing" to which language "refers":

I can't see how this helps your case at all.

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