--- In Wittrs@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, Glen Sizemore <gmsizemore2@...> wrote: "If it is nonsense to say that "utterances express meanings" - and if one looks at how "meaning" is used, it becomes obvious that it is - then why would it not be nonsense when the utterances are observable only to the speaker and listener who, in this case, are the same person?" Bruce responds: If it is nonsense to say X, then it follows it is nonsense to say that X is observed by anyone. But how did you get to the conclusion that it is nonsense to say phrase X? Is the exact phrase, those particular words that are nonsense or is it the meaning of the uterance expressed in the words nonsense? bruce ========================================== For all your Wittrs needs: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/