[lit-ideas] Re: Ask the Ayatollah
- From: "Steve Chilson" <stevechilson@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Sat, 07 Oct 2006 02:56:44 +0100
I think one should only be responsible if one is aware of the sin.
Granted, by that measure the bears and the dogs are allowed to do
whatever they want but on the other hand, in some eyes, ignorance is
blasphemy to be converted and thus, bears and dogs, like humans, should
probably be beheaded.
On Fri, 6 Oct 2006 21:29:27 EDT, JimKandJulieB@xxxxxxx said:
> I dunno -- are bears and dogs responsible under religious ruling?
>
> Julie Krueger
>
> ========Original Message======== Subj: [lit-ideas] Re: Ask the
> Ayatollah
> Date: 10/6/2006 5:11:33 P.M. Central Standard Time From:
> _stevechilson@xxxxxxxxxxxx (mailto:stevechilson@xxxxxxxxxxx) To:
> _lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
> (mailto:lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx) Sent on:
> (pardon the blasphemy) but is sucking your own dick to the point of
> climax a violation of fasting?
>
>
> On Fri, 6 Oct 2006 11:23:16 +0200, "Chris Bruce" <bruce@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
> said:
> >
> > On 5. Okt 2006, at 20:26, Eric Yost wrote:
> >
> > > … Deliberate masturbation during the month of Ramadan renders a
> fast
> > > invalid, Iranian Supreme Leader Sayyid Ali Khameini has ruled.
> >
> > Is the phrase 'deliberate masturbation' not pleonastic? My dictionary
> > defines 'masturbate' as follows: 'to stimulate the genital organs (of
> > oneself or another) to achieve sexual pleasure'. (It seems to follow
> > that if one has a particular intent- i.e., 'to achieve sexual pleasure'
> > - then one's actions are deliberate.)
> >
> > Other questions arise:
> >
> > If one 'stimulates the genital organs of another to achieve sexual
> > pleasure (for the other)' is one's own fast rendered invalid, or that
> > of the other? If one 'stimulates the genital organs of another to
> > achieve sexual pleasure for oneself (but not for the other)' whose fast
> > is then rendered invalid? If one has one's sexual organs stimulated by
> > another in order to achieve sexual pleasure (whether for one or
> > another) without deliberately requesting or condoning such stimulation,
> > what then? And what of sexual pleasure achieved without stimulation of
> > the sexual organs (of either oneself or another)? Or are all erogenous
> > zones or fetishes by definition 'extensions' of the sexual organs?
> > (E.g., must one with a rubber fetish wash dishes during Ramadan
> > bare-handed? And what if one has a rubber *and* a
> > soap-suds-on-naked-flesh fetish?)
> >
> > Wait a minute - I get it! Although all this questioning may be perhaps
> > intitally stimulating (in which case, there goes one's 'fast validity'
> > - fast!), the mire of semantic and clinical details ultimately turns
> > one off. Clever fellows, those ayatollahs ….
> >
> > Chris Bruce
> > Kiel, Germany
> >
> > DISCLAIMER: One feels obliged to assure the Lit-Ideas readership that
> > the pronouns 'one' and 'another' are here used 'impersonally' and any
> > correspondence between the contents of the above posting and the
> > activities or proclivities of actual persons, living or dead, is purely
> > coincidental (i.e., *not* deliberate).
> >
> > (One hopes that this disclaimer should leave the validitiy of a few
> > fasts intact. On the other, er, hand, should one - or another - find
> > that not to be the case, one - or another - can be reached in the usual
> > fashion ….)
> >
> > CB
> > --
> >
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> --
> Steve Chilson
> stevechilson@xxxxxxxxxxx
>
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