I beg the indulgence of those who still await a (probably long over-due) reply to their posts on threads in which I have been involved as I postpone those replies yet again in an effort to meet a looming administrative deadline. My being able to meet that deadline hinges on getting clear on a matter that has been befuddling me for some time now. I seek input both from the philosophers as well as from those blessed with common sense. (I grant, of course, the intersection of those classes.) It has to do with the relationship between giving reasons and morality. Here are two possible versions of the relationship. Version A Moral principles and norms having to do with equality, autonomy, reciprocity and universality are general criteria which we apply to different contexts, actions, policies, etc.. Reason-giving is one particular activity or language-game. We can do it either in accordance with the above stated moral norms or we can engage in the activity while violating those same norms. Moral principles originate within our socialization into a particular culture, set of traditions, etc.. So we, for example, come to learn to respect the equal freedom of all persons and then we apply this norm within our particular activities, one of which is reason-giving. (Or we fail to do so.) Version B Moral principles conceptually originate within the activity of giving reasons. The former necessarily presuppose the latter. Without this practice, we could not learn, nor would we have, moral concepts such as equality, autonomy, right and wrong, obligation, etc.. It's not that these moral principles and concepts are available to us first, learned first within acculturation, and then applied to various activities and contexts, one of which is reason-giving. Rather, what it means to respect others as free and equal persons, what it means to have an obligation, etc., are intelligible to us only because we understand what it means to give reasons. That's a quick and rough way of putting it, I realize. But any commentary on which version is the correct one would be appreciated. I'm assuming they're mutually exclusive, but perhaps not? I'm not attributing either of these views to any particular writer as I don't want to get embroiled in textual hermeneutic matters. Walter C. Okshevsky Memorial U ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html