[lit-ideas] Re: Movie
- From: Chris Bruce <bruce@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Thu, 27 Jul 2006 10:50:26 +0200
Re:
Anybody have any idea if there is a philosophical underpinning to
the religious idea that if one sins in one's thoughts therefore
one has sinned?
The way this is expressed *sounds* tautologous - cf. 'If one sins in
Memphis, then one has sinned'. But, cf. 'If one sins in one's dreams,
then one has sinned.'
Taking 'sinning' to mean something like 'willful wrong-doing', how (if
at all) does the following quotation from Kant contribute to answering
your question?
'Nothing can possibly be conceived in the world, or even out of it,
which can be called good, without qualification, except a good will.'
Chris Bruce
Kiel, Germany
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