As you know, I have no scientific knowledge, but it seems logical to me that, rather than there being a "zero gravity point", that instead there is a point where the pull of gravity from the moon, is equal to the pull of gravity from the Earth, that is, the two forces pulling equaliy at a given point. If you go nearer the moon, you still have the pull of gravity from the Earth, but it is less than the increasing pull from the moon, and visa versa. Surely, if there was a point where gravity was zero, the moon would escape from its orbit? Pete Charlton ----- Original Message ----- From: Bernie Brauer To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx Sent: Friday, April 04, 2008 12:04 AM Subject: [geocentrism] Re: Tides and the moon and M-M Statement/Question: "It is widely accepted, although not by me, that the moon causes the tides. It is also widely accepted, although not by me, that there exists a zero-gravity point situated somewhere between the World and moon. My question is this: If the ocean were situated at the zero-gravity point, then there would be no tide. Closer to the World the pull of the World is stronger. Closer to the moon the pull of the moon is stronger. The net effect, this side of the zero-gravity point, is always a positive pull by the World. Since this is equivalent to a force of gravity that produces a stronger pull as we take the oceans further this side of the zero-gravity point, then how does the moon produce the tides?" Dr. Neville T. Jones Response: "IT DOES NOT DIRECTLY, ONLY INDIRECTLY. Hooray! I'm so glad finally someone else sees this issue too. Further, the tides are one of the major reasons why I model gravity as a vibration, for The Alias Effect shows that the position of the sun and moon has a relationship to gravity on Earth but tides demonstrate that they are not directly related due to the whole satellites issues as well as atmosphere. However, in vibrational gravity the positions of CB's ( Celestial Bodies ) will affect the vibrational wave. In short, the tides are caused by the squeezing effect of the gravity vibration, that is to say, that there is no additional or absence of gravity force, only a uneven squeezing effect that is a result in part due to sun/moon/background-stars positioning ( The Alias Effect proves this ). A vibration is the only known physical explanation that can account for that effect while producing a non-detectable gravity force in all of its anomalies, which are not anomalies but rather clear indicators that gravity is a vibration of aether waves. No other known physical construct could account for all those things." Allen Daves Jack Lewis <jack.lewis@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote: I haven't yet seen anyone come with an answer to something Neville, I think, once said regarding the point, which must exist, between the Earth and the Moon where the gravity is zero. This being the case how is it that the Moon controls the tides? I'm sure, I think, that there must be a simple answer. The M-M part of the subject is to ask Regner how he is getting on with the answering the interferometer experiments wrt a non-moving Earth? Jack ------------------------------------------------------------------------------ You rock. That's why Blockbuster's offering you one month of Blockbuster Total Access, No Cost.