[geocentrism] Re: Tides and the moon and M-M

  • From: "PETER CHARLTON" <peter.nambo@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Fri, 4 Apr 2008 21:06:09 +0100

As you know, I have no scientific knowledge, but it seems logical to me that, 
rather than there being a "zero gravity point", that instead there is a point 
where the pull of gravity from the moon, is equal to the pull of gravity from 
the Earth, that is, the two forces pulling equaliy at a given point.

If you go nearer the moon, you still have the pull of gravity from the Earth, 
but it is less than the increasing pull from the moon, and visa versa.

Surely, if there was a point where gravity was zero, the moon would escape from 
its orbit?

Pete Charlton
  
  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Bernie Brauer 
  To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx 
  Sent: Friday, April 04, 2008 12:04 AM
  Subject: [geocentrism] Re: Tides and the moon and M-M


  Statement/Question:
  "It is widely accepted, although not by me, that the moon causes the tides. 
It is also widely accepted, although not by me, that there exists a 
zero-gravity point situated somewhere between the World and moon.
  My question is this: If the ocean were situated at the zero-gravity point, 
then there would be no tide. Closer to the World the pull of the World is 
stronger. Closer to the moon the pull of the moon is stronger. The net effect, 
this side of the zero-gravity point, is always a positive pull by the World. 
Since this is equivalent to a force of gravity that produces a stronger pull as 
we take the oceans further this side of the zero-gravity point, then how does 
the moon produce the tides?"  Dr. Neville T. Jones
  Response:
  "IT DOES NOT DIRECTLY, ONLY INDIRECTLY. Hooray! I'm so glad finally someone 
else sees this issue too. Further, the tides are one of the major reasons why I 
model gravity as a vibration, for The Alias Effect shows that the position of 
the sun and moon has a relationship to gravity on Earth but tides demonstrate 
that they are not directly related due to the whole satellites issues as well 
as atmosphere. However, in vibrational gravity the positions of CB's ( 
Celestial Bodies ) will affect the vibrational wave. In short, the tides are 
caused by the squeezing effect of the gravity vibration, that is to say, that 
there is no additional or absence of gravity force, only a uneven squeezing 
effect that is a result in part due to sun/moon/background-stars positioning ( 
The Alias Effect proves this ). A vibration is the only known physical 
explanation that can account for that effect while producing a non-detectable 
gravity force in all of its anomalies, which are not anomalies but rather clear 
indicators that gravity is a vibration of aether waves. No other known physical 
construct could account for all those things."  Allen Daves

  Jack Lewis <jack.lewis@xxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
    I haven't yet seen anyone come with an answer to something Neville, I 
think, once said regarding the point, which must exist, between the Earth and 
the Moon where the gravity is zero. This being the case how is it that the Moon 
controls the tides? I'm sure, I think, that there must be a simple answer. 

    The M-M part of the subject is to ask Regner how he is getting on with the 
answering the interferometer experiments wrt a non-moving Earth?

    Jack 





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