--- In Wittrs@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx, Gordon Swobe <wittrsamr@...> wrote: > --- On Sat, 4/3/10, SWM <wittrsamr@...> wrote: > > > Moreover, I will say again: It is no argument against a > > view to attack its motivation(s) > > I think it adds light to understand the motivations for a particular point of > view. And I repeat: eliminative materialism seems to me motivated by a fear > of Cartesian dualism, naively understood. > It can add light, as you put it, but it cannot and does not substitute for an argument. Searle's CRA, after all, doesn't proceed by relying on discrediting the motives of those who think differently! He gives us premises (rightly or wrongly) to work with. Moreover, I would dispute your claim about the motivation (since I am a counter example) but it's really not worth bothering about because it says nothing about the quality of the argument for a Dennettian viewpoint. You still have failed to demonstrate, by the way, that to deny "Cartesian dualism" is really to embrace it as you claimed earlier! > The eliminative materialist fails to understand that after one truly abandons > the Cartesian mind/matter dichotomy, one can then a la Searle assign > properties of mind to matter without transgressing reason. > How do you know this is the case? How do you know what the "eliminative materialist" "fails to understand"? Maybe eliminative materialists think guys like you "fail to understand"? Certainly I think you persistently fail to understand that consciousness could be explainable as a system property in which case Searle's CRA, which relies on the idea that consciousness can ONLY be a property of certain processes at its most basic level, fails to sustain a general conclusion about all possible combinations of the processes found in the CR. > The eliminativist correctly abandons the unwanted Cartesian concept of > non-physical mind but then he mistakenly holds onto the false Cartesian idea > of matter, which on the dualist view can have no subjective aspect, i.e., no > irreducible first-person ontology. > As I have argued before (though not recently here), Dennett, at least in Consciousness Explained, is NOT making an argument for materialism and is saying NOTHING about "matter". Dennett's only concern in that book is to offer a way of accounting for consciousness in a way that explains how physical brains produce it. He may well be a materialist (I don't know where he stands on metaphysical theory) but one can hold his position (as I do) without believing in the ontological irreducibility of what we recognize as matter. Modern physics gives us a much more subtle and robust picture of the universe and what underlies what we recognize as material. Now, if Dennett is not embracing an idea that 'all is matter' as you claim he is, then you cannot accuse him of hanging onto one half of the Cartesian dualist picture. (However, I will say that here, at least, you have made an argument for your position and I appreciate that. Suffice it to say, for now, that my view is that you are wrongly imputing a metaphysical theory to Dennett. While I am sure he is a physicalist at bottom, that only means that he thinks that the account of things that is handed us by modern physics is likely sufficient to explain all the phenomena we encounter in the universe, including ourselves and those like us -- even if it is yet considered to be an incomplete account.) > The eliminativist doubles his mistake when he, a la Dennett, falsely labels > those don't fall into the same trap "Cartesians". > > -gts > Now THAT you need to defend, first, because I think you are wrong in supposing that Dennett is a metaphysical materialist in any classical sense of that term (a la Cartesian dualism) and, second, because you need to show why the claim that it takes a Cartesian dualist to believe in the CRA's conclusion is "false". As of now you have only asserted it. Yet I have made an argument, repeatedly, why it is true and not false to say of the CRA that it depends on a presumption that consciousness is ontologically basic (and I came to it separately from Dennett -- so here we have two independent judgments concerning the implicit dualism of the CRA). What is your evidence or proof that it is a false claim? Finally, since your claim that to hold a Dennettian position implies one is embracing some kind of metaphysical materialism is not established and you have yet to establish it, aren't you prejudging the case by supposing that Dennett falls into a "trap"? Frankly, it looks to me as if you have a remarkably non-subtle understanding of the distinction between being physical and being non-physical. I would suggest, falling back on Wittgenstein, that these terms do different work in different contexts and that that is probably a big source of our problem here, i.e., you are using terms like "physical" and "non-physical" in different ways in different statements. For instance, one can say of what we label "mental" that it is "non-physical" in the sense that the features that make it up are not identifiable as physical objects in the objective world. On the other hand, that says nothing about whether they are part and parcel of the physical world because they are derived from it. If the latter then they ARE "physical" in one very important sense even if we would not call them "physical" in the sense of being physical objects. SWM ========================================= Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/