[lit-ideas] Re: "The Day After Yesterday"

  • From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Mon, 31 Jan 2005 21:31:26 EST

 
 
In a message dated 1/31/2005 5:06:55 P.M. Eastern Standard Time,  
phil.enns@xxxxxxxxxxx writes:
"I'm not  sure what McCartney meant by 'Yesterday'. Literally, of course,  we
_know_."

'We' may know but it isn't at all clear to me.   Perhaps my problem is that I
am not at all clear what the word 'yesterday'  _literally_ means.  I know how
to use it in a variety of contexts but  which one is the 'literal' one? 



--- Thanks for the comments. I grant you that 'yesterday' _is_ a tricky  
word, for trickier (far trickier) is _tomorrow_. Mind, in Arabic, and Spanish,  
and, I think, German or English for that matter, you don't necessarily mean  
"day". YesterDAY, on the other hand, _literally_ means 'day', and, I was  
suggesting, only FIGURATIVELY may mean 'the past', as in McCartney's, "How I  
long 
for yesterday".
 
Note that "How I long for yesterday" is extra tricky in that
 
1. being an exclamation, it can well be answered in the negative: "I  _don't_ 
long for yesterday".
 
2. One is suppose to _long_ for things in the future ("I long for a cruise  
to Jamaica").
 
In most languages, 'yesterday' does not _necessarily_ refer to a _day_  
(German, Italian, French). 
 
Come to think of it, this makes the title of Miles's novel a slight  
redundancy: "The DAY after yester DAY" -- a cacophony that is not present in 
the  
literal, 'the day after tomorrow'.
 
Cheers,
 
JL


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