[lit-ideas] Re: Mexican protesting

  • From: "Judith Evans" <judithevans1@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Tue, 2 May 2006 19:06:07 +0100

LH>In continental Europe immigrants have had success in flouting the 
LH>law, especially in forcing various nations to accept Islamic standards 
LH>in lieu of their own.  Europe has been fairly successful in restricting 
LH>the influence of Christianity, but it hasn't been willing to apply those 
LH>same restrictions to Islam.  

Could you say a bit more, with citations, about both of these things (i.e. 
restricting 
Christianity and not restricting Islam) w/ref to (at least 2) European 
countries?

(France's official secularism applies to all religions equally -- though I 
have a feeling Christians are somewhat advantaged when it comes to 
what can be worn in schools -- Britain is de facto secular but  of course 
England 
has a Christian Established church.  Britain has gaoled Muslim priests.  France 
wouldn't
have let those priests into the country in the first place.

So, well, you must be thinking of other countries.)

Oh yes.  Car burning.  There were some pretty heavy riots in France recently 
and they got the law changed.  They weren't mentioned here, presumably because 
the rioters weren't Muslim.

Judy Evans, Cardiff


  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Lawrence Helm 
  To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx 
  Sent: Tuesday, May 02, 2006 3:53 PM
  Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: Mexican protesting


  Joseph,



  A: No.



  B: I hope not.  



  In continental Europe immigrants have had success in flouting the law, 
especially in forcing various nations to accept Islamic standards in lieu of 
their own.  Europe has been fairly successful in restricting the influence of 
Christianity, but it hasn't been willing to apply those same restrictions to 
Islam.  Why?  

Other related posts: