Am I reading Halsall correctly as stating that the modern consensus is that the western Aetius did *not* have a fourth consulship? If so, I would agree with Kevin that this strengthens his case that the 'thrice consul' reference could be anachronistic. Matt On Mon, Apr 6, 2009 at 12:15 PM, Kevin Bowman <kbowman@xxxxxxxxxxx> wrote: > According to Guy Halsall: > http://books.google.com/books?id=S7ULzYGIj8oC&pg=PA520&lpg=PA520&dq=Aeti > us+fourth+consulship&source=bl&ots=qLZxk_b7Vs&sig=-1VeY0LX2yJ64gZyKy1mBg > kfgqQ&hl=en&ei=ZSbaSZHvFJmqMrv-qYEP&sa=X&oi=book_result&ct=result&resnum > =1 > > identification of the fourth consulship of Aetius in 453 comes from the > Consularia Constantinopolitana of Hydatius and the Fastii Vindobonenses > Posteriori of 570 (of which I know nothing), but the modern scholarly > consensus is that this was based on confusion. > > I have no knowledge that I could offer to refute the reported consensus > opinion. > > I will only add that, if there was no fourth consulship for Aetius, it > is all the more likely that Gildas could have referred to him as thrice > consul anachronistically. > > Kevin A. Bowman > > > >