[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 125

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 31 Jan 2010 10:40:27 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (16 Messages)

Messages

1.1.

Consciousness, QM and the Vacuous Question

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 6:42 am (PST)



BruceD wrote:

>I'm still interested in your concept of consciousness. That it
>collapses the wave function (whatever that means) tell us what about
>consciousness?

there is an equation, the Schrodinger equation, that gives the
probability of each possible outcome of a measurement; but, it doesn't
predict when a measurement will be made, which measurement will be
attempted or what the actual outcome of the measurement will be.

in between measurements, then, the particle is in a 'superposition' of
all the possible values that it could have for its dynamic properties;
but, when a measurement is made only one value is observed. this
conversion from potentia to actua, from a range of possibilities to a
single actual result is known as the collapse of the wave function or
the reduction of the wave packet or some such term.

some say that the Schrodinger equation is just a tool for calculating
outcome probabilities; but, von Neumann says that it describes a
physical reality. consequently, the measurement has a physical effect
'collapsing the wave function' (converting potentia to actua). the
problem is that, according to von Neumann's analysis, the cause of the
collapse can't be anything physical because he showed that everything
physical is subject to the Schrodinger equation.

in von Neumann's words, something "outside the calculation" (ie
something non-physical) is needed to explain the collapse. he postulated
that this is the abstract 'I' --- a term that others take to mean
consciousness or some aspect thereof.

hence the dilemma for philosophy of consciousness.

if something non-physical is having a physical effect; then, at minimum,
the doctrine of the causal closure of the physical bites the dust.

unless it can be shown that that qualia, first-person phenomenology, can
have a physical effect on a subatomic particle, it follows that we're
dealing with a second type of meta-phenomenal entity (a second type of
'thing').

not only would this be substance dualism; but, since the whole point is
to explain a physical effect, it would be interactive substance dualism.

Joe

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2a.

Re: Wittgenstein in a Tetrahedron

Posted by: "College Dropout John O'Connor" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 9:07 am (PST)





Kirby, I love this topic. What posts is this one following up?

Kepler was quite fascinated with the tetrahedron and I wonder if the tetrahedron, by its geometry alone, might be able to model (or set the basis for a geometric model) the solar system. It was mentioned that nested solids could be formed by tetrahedron construction. If that is so, lets build a new planet.

But this is curious in regards the asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter. The tetrahedron is elementary not like the sun is elementary to the solar system; it is elementary to the ordering- the hierarchical ordering of the planets, separating the solid planets from the gaseous ones. The inner from the outer planets and whats inside and outside the tetrahedron. Mars, Jupiter, and the belt...

But you asked questions: I am waiting on my copy of LFM but it is pertinent to the issues. And as for people's response I can only guess.

So, I guess, in comparing the tetrahedron to the square, the square can only build more squares and cubes whereas the tetrahedron can create works of art. If that is within people's grasp in the pedagogues, you win.

Fuller says that mnemonics could be best taught by starting with the tetrahedron. What is the connection between Fuller's geometry of language and Wittgenstein's logic of language?

Thanks in advance. :)
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3a.

Wittgenstein Workshop

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Sat Jan 30, 2010 10:36 am (PST)



From the Wittgenstein Workshop:

==================================
Dear all,

next Friday, Feb 5th, the speaker at the Wittgenstein Workshop
will be:

MARTIN GUSTAFSSON (University of Stockholm, Sweden)
"PICTURES, DREAMS AND CONJURING TRICKS:
AUGUSTINE AND PLATO IN THE 'PHILOSOPHICAL INVESTIGATIONS'"
1:30-4:30, Cobb 106

Background reading by M. F. Burnyeat and G. Baker is available
on the Wittgenstein Workshop website:
http://lucian.uchicago.edu/workshops/wittgenstein

PLEASE make sure to read at least the Burnyeat paper.

=============================================
 
SW

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4a.

On the Varieties of Dualism: Phenomenological Dualism

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 11:04 am (PST)



SWM wrote:

>By the way, I do not accuse Searle of "property dualism" as you state
>above. I accuse him of being implicitly dualist (in the deep sense, the
>sense you insist on calling, somewhat archaically, "substance
>dualism"). But I am fully aware that he denies being dualist in that or
>any sense. That is why my claim is that he is "implicitly dualist."

thank you for clearing that up.

there is some support in the literature for classifying Searle as a
latent property dualist. Chalmers, for example, thinks that "Searle
[Rediscovery of the Mind] admits the logical possibility of zombie, and
in fact holds that there is merely a causal connection between the
microphysical and conscious experience, so he is perhaps best seen as a
property dualist." [The Conscious Mind. p.376]

however, this clarification does no more than heighten the absurd irony
of the present thread. you purport to the able to detect latent
substance dualism in Searle when it is so well hidden that no one else
(AFAIK) has been able to detect it. on the other hand, you are blind to
the overt dualistm of the the von Neumann Interpretation.

Joe

--

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4b.

Re: On the Varieties of Dualism: Phenomenological Dualism

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 5:27 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote:
>
> SWM wrote:
>
> >By the way, I do not accuse Searle of "property dualism" as you state
> >above. I accuse him of being implicitly dualist (in the deep sense, the
> >sense you insist on calling, somewhat archaically, "substance
> >dualism"). <snip>

> however, this clarification does no more than heighten the absurd irony
> of the present thread. you purport to the able to detect latent
> substance dualism in Searle when it is so well hidden that no one else
> (AFAIK) has been able to detect it. on the other hand, you are blind to
> the overt dualistm of the the von Neumann Interpretation.
>
> Joe

All right Joe, you've worn me down! Nearby you describe in detail to Bruce your view on von Neumann's take on collapsing wave functions and "abstract I's". I didn't respond there because you were addressing Bruce so I'll respond on that here and then get to your comment immediately above:

The von Neumann Question and Dualism -

Insofar as you are arguing that 'if von Neumann's thesis is true, Dennett's is false' I will agree. But there is no evidence that von Neumann's is true, just your evident preference for it. Certainly it is a complex and rather obscurantist thesis and not universally embraced or granted. But insofar as a claim that dualism is true, which is what your take on von Neumann claims, then of course Dennett's non-dualistic thesis cannot be. So what is all this argument about and why did you even present that claim to me when I was arguing for Dennett's thesis. Indeed, if any kind of dualism is true, Dennett's thesis has to be wrong. I never denied it, I just stated that Dennett's thesis adequately accounts for what we mean by consciousness WITHOUT HAVING TO POSIT DUALISM to explain the occurrence of consciousness in the universe!

Note that that is not a denial of dualism any more than it is an assertion of the truth of monist phyiscalism. It's just an assertion that we don't need to buy into dualism to explain consciousness. Period. That there are dualist claims out there is beside the point. (Nor do I accept the interpretation of the I,II,III scenario or the "abstract I" that you present and which you think implies dualism. Since I don't find it convincing for all the reasons I have already given, then there is no sense in continuing to argue about the implications of your von Neumannism for Dennett's model.)

Dualism and Searle -

Now as to my purporting "to detect latent substance dualism" in Searle even though you are unaware of anyone else ever having made that claim, what's your point? Are you aiming to suggest that unless there is an already established view on something it cannot be presented? Where do you think established views come from after all? Someone has to be the first! Perhaps I am? Wouldn't that be a kick?

However, I am not, since Dennett's view is that Searle is guilty of old fashioned dualism as I recall (see his appendix discussing the Chinese Room argument in Consciousness Explained which, if memory serves, is where he touches on it).

Now we know that some have said the explicit view Searle presents is that of property dualism and that paper we all read and discussed on Analytic was Searle's response to that charge. He hung his response on the claim that to for property dualism to be dualism even it has to reduce to substance dualism. I actually agree with that viewpoint but, as you may recall, Walter argued, and not entirely unconvincingly, that Searle misrepresented "property dualism" in that paper. Walter argued that "prpoerty dualism" is nothing more than the recognition of two fundamentally different kinds of properties attachable to physical things and that only some physical things had the added property of intentionality (his proxy for consciousness in that discussion).

Although Walter refused to elaborate whether he was asserting that intentionality was reducible to non-intentional properties of brains in some fashion (e.g., certain physical processes), he did leave that open as a possibility before withdrawing from the discussion by claiming that he was embracing the "mysterian" position (which is close to Bruce's argument for unintelligibility).

As I said then and reiterate now, I think that is a fundamentally unsatisfying response. The intentionality of brains (or some brains) can be one of two things:

1) Some system property (a la Minsky's usage), i.e., a feature of certain physical goings-on in brains; or

2) Something new that brains mysteriously bring into existence.

If we are saying #1 above, then we don't have any deep kind of dualism, as Walter was proposing, but if we mean, instead, #2 then we do because what makes it "new" is that it's not reducible, i.e., it's ontologically basic, even if it hasn't always been co-existent with the physical brain (it's a property that arises at a certain point in time in the life of the brain).

Thus, if "property dualism" means #2, then it's no different at bottom than substance dualism because the intentionality is being presented as an ontological basic.

But if it's about #1, then it's not dualism except in terms of the use of the term because what is supposed to be dual isn't ontologically distinct from what it derives from, i.e., it's just a manifestation of certain physical processes in operation.

My point about Searle was that his Chinese Room Argument (the CRA) only works if we conceive of consciousness as being irreducible and thus as ontologically basic. Thus, Searle's argument's conclusion relies on an implicit dualism in the same sense as Descartes' now hoary "substance dualism". But Walter took Searle to task for misstating what "property dualism" really is in order to deny being that. If Walter is right, then Searle really is a "property dualist" (because he recognizes the occurrence of certain brain-caused properties associated with consciousness) despite his denials. But THAT isn't relevant to the question of whether his argument's conclusion depends on the deeper dualism he calls in that paper (and we have called here) "substance dualism". If that dependence exists, then Searle is implicitly dualist in this deep sense, regardless of what he says about his position on "property dualism".

SWM

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5a.

Re: [C] message board record?

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Sat Jan 30, 2010 11:30 am (PST)





... forgot to mention this. We broke a message board record on Thursday at 3:18 in the morning (Eastern time), which to most, is rather late Wednesday night. I didn't notice it myself. We had 156 visitors.

I really don't know what to make of it. It's like we get hit with a group of people who come and go at regular intervals. During the same week there can be as low as 1-5 visitors. Very strange how these "waves" hit. Also, judging by the lateness of the waves, it appears we are most popular outside of the United States. (Surprise, surpise. Americans are, in general, philosophically barren)

I think the board counts ip address, not "hits" (browser windows). But I'm not sure. It's conceivable that, if it only counts browser windows, that some could have multiple windows open. Some visitors are spammers trying to break in. But those "flies" are generally low in number. I've seen what people look at during high waves of numbers -- so I know the total this week is not caused by spammers. But I just don't know if its 156 distinct ips or open windows. (I'm going to write to fudforum today to see.)

Regards.
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6a.

Sense of "Is"

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 11:47 am (PST)



jrstern wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote:

>> Kant said that being is not a 'real' predicate, which in Kantian
>> jargon means a predicate that adds determinations to the subject.
>> 'being' remains a logical predicate --- it is a 'real' (in the
>> sense of genuine) predicate but not a 'real' (in the sense of
>> determining) predicate.
>
> As to exactly what Kant did or didn't say about "is", or the German
> equivalent, I will have to trust y'all.
>
> But your example here shows two different games in which it can be
> used. One is an ontological game, the other is a linguistic game.

how are these language games different.

> It explains why one might want to use "to be" predicates for,
> say, unicorns - or existential predicates, at all.
>
> Is "is" the same word, across games?

it's the same word across the millennia. from sum to am. from est to is.

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

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7.

More re Remarks on Foundations of Mathematics

Posted by: "kirby urner" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 12:55 pm (PST)



Continuing with some threads that have interested me, and to
which I bring my understanding of Wittgenstein, here's a new
Wikipedia page:

http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quadray_coordinates

This is not new material, actually had an article published in
an old FoxPro Advisor, though I didn't cite that as this mag is
no longer in print I don't think, hard to find even on the web.
I should dig up the date though -- added assignment to inbox.

This was a collaborative effort, as I make clear in the docs (the
Wikipedia entry is deliberately short and sweet, almost more
literary than mathematical, like about some gizmo in Uru
(a computer game, by Cyan in Spokane, WA **).

Why this relates to Wittgenstein is it's clearly a little language
game that's easy enough to grasp, yet runs counter to so
many standard assumptions and therefore comes across as
disruptive, breaking gestalts. But to "break a gestalt" is, in a
more positive light, fighting the bewitchment of our intelligence
by means of language.

Going back to earlier posts, I've been discussing a model of
3rd powering based on the tetrahedron instead of the cube,
and a consistent way of evaluating the volumes of other shapes
based on this standard. There's a change in nomenclature,
some ripple effects, yet the underlying mathematics is
indifferent to these ripples in the sense that its seamless logic
is undisturbed. There's no broken glass at the end of the day.
We're free to go back to our other games and keep playing
them too, perhaps with some new perspective that'll even
help us play better?

I think that's what "philosophy leaves everything as it is"
sort of means. Wittgenstein is sometimes portrayed as an
iconoclast. I prefer to see him as a defender of ordinary
language that's doing work in the world, trying to keep it
from falling into various traps that may have ensnared some
philosopher types, rendering them fascinated and transfixed
by some deep grammatical problems. There's the therapy
aspect, but also preventive health. The PI supplies memetic
(mnemonic) antibodies at some level. One might suggest
students read it, web-publish about it, even if studying
some apparently unrelated science?

OK, back to my studies. Comments welcome as always
though I know this is arcane material. If you follow links to
Quadray Papers you might end up in my blog, something
about Quaker Geometry. Talk about esoteric!

Kirby

** http://cyanworlds.com/company/index.php
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8a.

[C] Re: Sense of "Is"

Posted by: "gabuddabout" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 2:33 pm (PST)





--- In WittrsAMR@yahoogroups.com, "jrstern" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@> wrote:
> >
> > Kant said that being is not a 'real' predicate, which in Kantian
> > jargon means a predicate that adds determinations to the subject.
> > 'being' remains a logical predicate --- it is a 'real' (in the
> > sense of genuine) predicate but not a 'real' (in the sense of
> > determining) predicate.
>
> As to exactly what Kant did or didn't say about "is", or the German
> equivalent, I will have to trust y'all.
>
> But your example here shows two different games in which it can be
> used. One is an ontological game, the other is a linguistic game.
>
> It explains why one might want to use "to be" predicates for,
> say, unicorns - or existential predicates, at all.
>
> Is "is" the same word, across games?
>
> Josh

Not hardly if one game is amounting to willful abuse of word meaning for some effect or another.

But I don't see that any answer to your question will be really deep, yet.

Budd

>
>
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9.1.

Re: Dennett's Intentional Stance

Posted by: "gabuddabout" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 2:36 pm (PST)





--- In WittrsAMR@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "gabuddabout" <wittrsamr@> wrote:
>
>
> > Well, it turns out that you haven't read that target article either!
>
> Well thanks. I always thought that we were supposed to approach
> debating in the spirit of the principle of charity
> <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Principle_of_charity> . I really don't
> see the need for that kind of insult.

Look, if I could correctly point out that you haven't read the target article, that might encourage you to go read it. And you should really see the need for that kind of advice if you would like to get a little deeper into the issue. And if you want a condensed version of all the possible criticisms of Searle that Stuart might make, I can guarantee you that they (the sane ones at least which don't depend on an inability to read English) will be found in Armstrong's paper written for the book, _John Searle and His Critics_. And you're welcome. See? No insults really. ;-)
>
>
> > Searle refuted strong AI ...
>
> Yet many respected people say that Searle did not refute anything.

And they might be right because it makes no sense to say that someone has refurted a thesis which is incoherent--for mavens!

>
>
> > That misses the whole point of the original target article which
> > focusses on the exact thesis of strong AI.
>
> Before that article appeared, there was no "thesis of strong AI". The
> term "strong AI" was coined by Searle, and some would say it was
> introduced as a strawman that Searle could attempt to knock down.

This is where I point out that you definitely haven't read the target article. How do I know? By the following counterfactual: If you read the target article, you would know exactly who actually held the position coined as Strong AI.
>
>
> > The point about the program ex hypothesii instantiated by the wall
> > is designed to show that a systems reply changes the subject to the
> > point where we no longer have a thesis (strong AI was supposeed to
> > be a candidate) for distinguishing minds from nonminds.
>
> I don't think Searle even mentioned the Systems Reply in his discussion
> about wordstar on the wall (in his book "The Rediscovery of the Mind").
>
> Regards,
> Neil

Right. The point about the wall has to do with the rather whorish position known as functionalism--Chalmers exposes her undersides by seeing panspychism as a consequence of computational functionalism as a theory of mind.

In the target article, "Minds, Brains and Programs," the systems reply simply changes the subject.

Btw, it is not an insult to point out that you haven't read it. The strong AI thesis was definitely held, contra your claim above, and you would be disabused of your mistake by reading it.

If you're that interested, anyway. And you're welcome to be.

Cheers,
Budd

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10.1.

Re: SWM: A tale of two stances

Posted by: "gabuddabout" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 2:36 pm (PST)



Stuart writes:

"This addresses the criteria of imputation. Dennett's view is there is no special entity called "intention", nothing to be found."

If one grasps the technical term "intentionality" as used by Searle, one doesn't come away thinking that Searle thinks intentionality is a special sort of entity.

OTOH, if one tries a la Armstrong and Dennett to impute _levels_ of intentionality until one arrives at the lowest level where there is none and intentionality is "discharged," one is obligated to make sense of the notion of intentionality at the levels below the one Searle positions himself when giving a biologically natural account of Intentionality with due consideration of holistic elements such as the notions of Network and Background. There might just be an humunculus mistake in an "intentional stance" as opposed to Searle's analysis of Intentionality.

It seems that Dennett thinks he is explaining consciousness if he can finally discharge intentionality at the lowest levels. But this is quite queer in that Searle's position is that there is consciousness and nonconscious biological processes (Dennett's lowest level where intentionality is discharged after making its rounds at levels where Searle thinks it queer to impute it).

The general way Stuart describes how he thinks of these issues is often perfectly consistent with Searle's real position.

The strawman is thinking that Searle's intuition involves thinking of Intentionality as a special entity. I don't think he ever insinuated anything like that at all. AND, if one tries to squeeze such a view out of his premises for the summary CRA, then one is going to have to do violence either to the English language or simply run with the conflation of computation and brute causality.

Anyway, as I said in another post today, most of the objections I've found Stuart making are also found in what Searle calls "an elegant paper"--Armstrong's paper on perception, intentionality and causality found in _John Searle and His Critics_.

Cheers,
Budd

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11a.

Re: SWM on reduction

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 4:23 pm (PST)



Hi Stuart-- there is so much material. Would agree in plucking one
theme? I tried on "reduction."
--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> If thoughts and feelings, etc., are reducible to things unlike
themselves,

Notice you write "to things unlike themselves" which implies that. prior
to reduction, there is soemthing (being love), to all appearances, is
totally different from Y (the electrical flow of brain), the thing you
wish to reduce X to. Right? This I'll call reduction in character.

How do you test that X is identical with Y?

Perhaps you mean reduction via causation. If you stimulate a brain area
and I report feeling giddy, the the experience of giddiness is dependent
upon the brain area. OK? But where do you place the person who is making
the report? The brain stimulation didn't cause giddiness, as if that
were some kind of phenomena in the world. Rather, it prompted the person
to describe his psychological state.

> I had asked that perhaps you would be good enough to explicate your
own view

I did in the last sentence above. I begin with a person. Not an entity
or substance. And, to make life complicated, the person is both outside
of his world, as author, and part of the world, as an object.
When you stimulate my brain you alter who I am. I experience my body, as
an object changing. But experience is always from a point of view. My
point of view, stance, is not part of the world because it defines my
world.

bruce

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11b.

Re: SWM on reduction

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 5:42 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

> Hi Stuart-- there is so much material. Would agree in plucking one
> theme? I tried on "reduction."
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:

> > If thoughts and feelings, etc., are reducible to things unlike
> themselves,
>
> Notice you write "to things unlike themselves" which implies that. prior
> to reduction, there is soemthing (being love), to all appearances, is
> totally different from Y (the electrical flow of brain), the thing you
> wish to reduce X to. Right? This I'll call reduction in character.
>
> How do you test that X is identical with Y?
>

Depends what's meant by "identical". Nothing in anything I've said implies that there isn't love and that love occurs on a different of our experience than the activities of the brains of the persons in love. The testing in question is accomplished by either eliminating certain brain operations in test subjects (morally unacceptable though sometimes researchers encounter subjects with the relevant brain damage) or building platforms of other materials (computers?) and attempting to replicate the operations that result in outputs associated with being in love.

> Perhaps you mean reduction via causation.

Not perhaps! That's what I've been saying and why I keep using that term (even while recognizing that "cause" has many applications, many contexts, many different uses).

> If you stimulate a brain area
> and I report feeling giddy, the the experience of giddiness is dependent
> upon the brain area. OK? But where do you place the person who is making
> the report?

The output of the full range of brain functions, not just the limited one being tested. Take away the brain or destroy it and where does the person go?

>The brain stimulation didn't cause giddiness, as if that
> were some kind of phenomena in the world.

That's a wrong picture. It certainly causes is and it is certainly in the world since the person is in the world as is his/her brain. But no, the giddiness is an experience that does not directly correlate to some physical object or entity we observe (even if such a thing might sometimes be the trigger of the experience of feeling giddy).

> Rather, it prompted the person
> to describe his psychological state.
>

No, it produced the psychological state the person is describing. A person could also describe it from memory or make it up. But in the context of the testing situation, it is the occurrence of the state which the person, following instructions, proceeds to report.

> > I had asked that perhaps you would be good enough to explicate your
> own view

> I did in the last sentence above. I begin with a person. Not an entity
> or substance. And, to make life complicated, the person is both outside
> of his world, as author, and part of the world, as an object.
> When you stimulate my brain you alter who I am. I experience my body, as
> an object changing. But experience is always from a point of view. My
> point of view, stance, is not part of the world because it defines my
> world.
>
> bruce

How does beginning with a person, as you put it, answer the question of how brains produce consciousness or whether they do or not or even what consciousness, at bottom, is? Aren't you really just talking on a different level?

And if so, then you really haven't answered my question. All you've done is changed the subject.

SWM

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12.1.

Re: The Epiphenomenalism of Dennett-Consistent Philosophies of Consc

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 4:53 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Justintruth <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
> "Why do you think being a subject implies being non-physical in any
> possible way if we can give an account
> of a physical entity as a subject (as Dennett does)"
>
> Here is a possible way:

> <snip>

>
> To "be a subject" means (among other things) being aware.
>
> It may be that a particular arrangement of particles causes awareness
> but if it is true we currently do not know
> what arrangement that is although we know, and have known since the
> first caveman ducked a rock,
> that it has to do with brains.
>
> Certainly, however, no arrangement is awareness because the term aware
> does not mean to be an arrangement of particles.

But the term's meaning says nothing about what causes the phenomena we associate with being a subject. The issue isn't what do we mean by "aware" but what produces awareness in the world?

> In fact it is
> possible to conceive of any arrangement as not being aware and in fact
> current physics does this. There is no mention in the physics of
> awareness - no property of matter corresponding to the idea of it. If
> there is then you should be able to point to that law of physics or
> state of matter described in some physics book as having that
> property. It is not in the classical physics, quantum mechanics, or
> relativity theory, so where is it?
>

That the laws or causal factors have not yet been discovered does not imply they are not there to be discovered. The only thing at issue here is whether we can conceive of consciousness as being physically derived, physically caused -- whatever the factors of physics need to be involved.

> My understanding is all aspects of chemistry are the result of physics
> and aspects of biology are result of
> chemistry and the brain a result of biology. If that is true then
> there is something missing - some principle that correlates the
> existence of awareness with some level of organization of the
> material. Certainly it is in neurology and the ties are being advanced
> daily. Since current physical law does not contain this (these)
> principle(s) then to "be a subject" is non-physical.
>

Of course it's to be non-physical in the sense of it not being about describing the physical phenomena but, rather, the behavioral and experiential phenomena of subjects. The question is what is the cause, however, and if subjectness can be caused by physics then awareness is physical in THAT critical sense. Above you note that physics underlies chemistry and chemistry underlies biology and that biology underlies brains and that brains are the source of awareness. So what's the problem?

> We could modify the current physics to include descriptions of what is
> now called non-physical. Then we could make the statement that being a
> subject does not imply being non-physical but then the physics as we
> know it when judged from the physics as it currently stands would
> include non-physical statements.

If the line of descent you describe above is the case it already does in an important sense, even if one uses different vocabularies and ways of talking to describe and reference the phenomena happening at different levels.

> Not that we would need to refer to
> them as such once the new statements were admitted to what we would
> then call physics.
>

> A corollary of this is that Dennett has not given an account of a
> physical entity as a subject by using the laws
> of physics to show how the existence of awareness is predicted. At
> some point he has to modify the laws of physics or refer to something
> that is not predicted by them. Otherwise he just gets a geometric
> rearrangement of the unaware matter.
>

Why do you think he has to do that? There are brains and there are minds and, as you rightly note, smashing a working brain with a rock eliminates the mind. All Dennett has to do is give an account of how physical phenomena such as what we find in brains can be aware (behave consciously and have experiences) and that, of course, is what he does.

> There is one other possibility. It is possible that Dennet possesses
> no consciousness of his own awareness and it
> is even at the extreme edge of possibility that what we call Dennet is
> unaware. That he does not really exist but
> is a zombie.

He makes a very good case that the idea of philosophical zombies isn't coherent, that is, while we think we can conceive of them, we really aren't doing that at all but, rather, confusing them with the idea of a mindless automaton. Of course, a philosophical zombie, while stipulated to be a mindless automaton behaves in every way, in every conceivable circumstance, as we do, including giving reports of internal experiences and having the same physical things going on inside its head. So what is missing?

> Then when he testifies to the fact of his lack of
> awareness he does not need to explain anything because in fact, in
> him, there is no awareness - and this is not a lack of consciousness
> but a genuine fact. We could be listening to a pure machine. If that
> is true then Dennet in fact may be right. Right about himself but not
> about me I can assure you.
>

I think you are simply misinterpreting him here. Consider his point about philosophical zombies again.

> I can assure you that that is not true for me as I experience directly
> the fact that I am aware and by that I do
> not mean that I am a material arrangement. I might in fact be one - in
> a sense - but if I am then there is
> more to a material arrangement than what is currently described in the
> physics.

First this isn't a question of physics, even if physics underlies all the other sciences as you rightly point out above. Second, the question at hand is what material arrangement works to produce consciousness and, if it can be discovered, then why suppose being conscious requires anything else? Dennett's thesis is that consciousness can be explained in just this way though he is not asserting that he has figured out exactly how brains do it. He offers a proposal, a thesis for how, which then must be put to the scientific test.

> If I am then there is some principle that associates certain
> structures with awareness.

But need it be some special, non-physical principle? Isn't the question really whether the physical principles we already know can be seen to be sufficient to account for this?

> I can tell this because I have had
> anesthesia and
> by a slight altering of my brain I lost awareness. I remember loosing
> it and I remember when I gained it. Nothing in my reading of the
> physics remotely predicts such an event. If it is there can you show
> me where?
>

Perhaps you are just not sufficiently versed in the physics or the chemistry or the biology?

> In a limited sense, when we posit something as really existing we
> necessarily posit it as not being my
> experiencing of it. Reality is then the opposite of the "purely
> subjective".

"Subjective" and "objective" refer to different stances vis a vis the world that a subject can take and, moreover, they have a number of different meanings in keeping with the Wittgensteinian notion that words can get used in a variety of related ways without one use dominating the others.

> After all isn't that what distinguishes
> a hallucination from a reality? Whether it is just someone "just
> seeing something" as opposed to something really being there?

Sometimes. And sometimes they're hard to distinguish.

> Reality
> is then what exists objectively and is not merely subjective. And if
> this is the measure of being then any experiencing of the subject is
> an inherently unreal experiencing of nothing. If we believe this We
> could then be fooled into believing that awareness is purely physical.
> This is solved by a better understanding of what it means to be real.
>

The only question is what is the cause of awareness in the world. Does it exist in co-terminous way with everything physical, does it get brought into the world as a distinctly different thing by certain physical things? Or is really just certain physical things interacting in a certain way?

> Claude Shannon states that the information associated with signals has
> nothing to do with their meaning. Yet it seems that in the assembly of
> matter into a device where information is most highly collected,
> processed and (presumably) stored we also have the creation of
> awareness. Perhaps there is in fact a relation between the two and
> perhaps someday as neurology and computer science progress we will
> find it and define it. What we find will be a relationship between
> what we now call physics and entropy and what we now call, for
> example, awareness.
>

Perhaps. Indeed, why not?

> We already have a lot of the picture. we know for example that vision
> has something to do with signals from
> the eyes traveling to the back of the head. We routinely use phrases
> like "he lost sight in one of his eyes". As imprecise as these are
> they are such an association. We need only make them precise enough to
> admit them to the physics somehow. I think neurology and cybernetics
> has a chance on achieving such generality.
>

So you are denying a physical basis for awareness or you aren't? It seems to me you are saying a little of both here.

> That will be a new scientific principle and we may deem the result a
> part of what we will then call "physics". Absent that advance the
> relationship between awareness and physics is unknown and it seems
> misleading to ascribe to the current physics predictions that it does
> not make.
>

Ah, so you are looking for the missing principle but don't deny it may be just another one that applies to the dynamics of physical phenomena?

Dennett's point is that we don't need to find some new, missing deep physics principle, that what we already have is likely to be enough.

> Once the association is known we will be able to do that. We will be
> able to say that if a particular arrangement of matter is made then an
> awareness forms or occurs. But when we do that the awareness that
> forms will not in fact be reducible to the arrangement. It will be a
> result of it.
>

If it is the "result of it" then it is reducible in the causal sense which is all that is at issue here. One needn't deny that consciousness is a different level of reality than the physical behavior of matter and its constituents to recognize that consciousness is dependent on a physical platform like brains.

> Perhaps even a new form of the word "be" will have to be added to the
> list in the other thread as such an assignment will be different than
> those in the list.
>
>

I don't think that's needed, but Sean has, on occasion, suggested it might be.

SWM

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13.1.

Re: SWM on causation

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 4:59 pm (PST)



Stuart, here I want to get clearer about your sense of consciousness
caused
--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

Bruce wrote: We have experiences, feelings, attitudes, none of these are
entities, but, rather, ways of being in the world.

> Then why do you keep talking about how impossible it is for the brain
to cause consciousness

I thought it would be apparent from what I wrote. An example.

The brain produces a chemical which is associated with waking up. On a
physical level, the brain produces certain molecules which cause
physiological changes that I take to be signs of wakening up.

My brain causes me to become conscious because I relate to that
stimulation in that particular way. And, it is also the case, that I am
the way I am because of the brain I have.

Which is to say that the brain offers me a possibility of consciousness.
To drop me out of the equation, to talk about some direct connection
between brain and consciousness requires one think of consciousness as
some entity produced somewhere,

> But, of course, it does occur in our heads

Which ought to be mean that it is detectable by some means. A gas? A
ray? The movement of a wheel is the displacement of material in space.
How can it not be any kind of entity and still there?

The alternative: We are subject to certain causal relationships. A
bullet in the head ends it. A blow may only disturb. And a nasty remark
we can, perhaps, fend off.

bruce

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13.2.

Re: SWM on causation

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Jan 30, 2010 5:48 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

> Stuart, here I want to get clearer about your sense of consciousness
> caused

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
> Bruce wrote: We have experiences, feelings, attitudes, none of these are
> entities, but, rather, ways of being in the world.
>
> > Then why do you keep talking about how impossible it is for the brain
> to cause consciousness
>

> I thought it would be apparent from what I wrote. An example.
>
> The brain produces a chemical which is associated with waking up. On a
> physical level, the brain produces certain molecules which cause
> physiological changes that I take to be signs of wakening up.
>

In yourself or in others? In yourself it would seem odd to say 'I see signs I am waking up'. What signs? Wouldn't any signs of this sort, under ordinary circumstances, just amount to your waking up? But if you mean signs in others, then this usage would seem to make sense. But then it doesn't go to the issue of how brains produce the experiences we have that are part and parcel of being conscious, being a conscious entity, etc.

> My brain causes me to become conscious because I relate to that
> stimulation in that particular way.

Again, this seems odd to me. How can your brain cause you to do this or that? It's a bit like when my little grandson responded to a question I asked him about how he knew something by saying "my brain told me"!


> And, it is also the case, that I am
> the way I am because of the brain I have.
>

> Which is to say that the brain offers me a possibility of consciousness.
> To drop me out of the equation, to talk about some direct connection
> between brain and consciousness requires one think of consciousness as
> some entity produced somewhere,
>

Why? To think about turning, as in a wheel turning, is not to think about two entities: the wheel and the turning. This is why I keep noting that you are thinking of consciousness as if it were entitt-like and that it is because you cannot shake this picture that you interpret everything I say about this as invoking the idea of mind as entity! But it is your picture, not mine.

You get round this as Walter did, by taking a mysterian position though, in your case, you call it denying the intelligibility of speaking of brains as causing consciousness!

> > But, of course, it does occur in our heads
>
> Which ought to be mean that it is detectable by some means. A gas? A
> ray? The movement of a wheel is the displacement of material in space.
> How can it not be any kind of entity and still there?
>

Ask the subject. Or observe him, her or it.

If you are the subject, on the other hand, just pay attention to your experiences.

> The alternative: We are subject to certain causal relationships. A
> bullet in the head ends it. A blow may only disturb. And a nasty remark
> we can, perhaps, fend off.
>
> bruce
>
>

The question, of course, is what are the implications of what you have just said for understanding what we mean by consciousness and what can bring it about and what sustains it?

SWM

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