Paul Stone writes: : At 10:29 AM 8/28/2006, you wrote: : >Perhaps it's a little like the "veit" and "beit" in Hebrew? Or the subtle : >difference in the way Latin Americans and Spaniards say "veces"? : : When linguists speak of a hard or soft sound, they are usually (for : English) talking about C and G, and sometimes J -- although I'm not sure : there are any soft js in non-filched English words. : : But there are only a certain number of 'sounds' and a soft 'c' is just an : 's', a soft 'g' is a 'j' and a soft 'j' is a 'y'. I can't think of what a : soft 't' would be. The closest I can think is when it is used as a 'sh' : sound as in 'libation'. But that's a totally different sound that is almost : completely dependent on the "io" following. Could "th" as in "the" and "kith" be considered a soft 't'? The Germans---and lots of others---don't use that sound, which is why the Germans have given up and now write "Neandertal" instead of "Neanderthal." -- Peter D. Junger--Case Western Reserve University Law School--Cleveland, OH EMAIL: junger@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx URL: http://samsara.law.cwru.edu ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html