atw: Re: The Queen's English?
- From: "Michael Lewis" <mlewis@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: austechwriter@xxxxxxxxxxxxx, austechwriter@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Tue, 22 May 2007 12:21:39 +1000
Anne Casey:
> Ah yes, but that was _only_ because Victoria
> married a German - and thus set a precedent. Queen Anne's
> husband was called King (can't remember who he
> was), and William and Mary ruled jointly - I seem to remember Mary
> had a better claim to the throne than William.
Not so. Queen Anne's husband was George, Prince of Denmark. Never known as
king of anywhere.
Before Anne were the two Tudor queens. Mary, a Catholic, married King Philip
II of Spain. The political dispensation of the time aimed at having Phillip
crowned king of England, but Mary died -- and was succeeded by her protestant
sister Elizabeth -- too soon; Phillip went home without an extra title.
Elizabeth remained unmarried.
Before Mary, the last queen regnant (as opposed to queen consort) was Matilda,
who was locked in civil war with her cousin Stephen. Matilda lost. She never
had a husband called king.
The joint reign of William and Mary was, as has already been pointed out, a
political solution to the "problem" of James II's Catholicism. Mary was next
in line; her husband was offered the crown jointly with her as an inducement
to provide military support for the overthrow of James. His kingship was not
an automatic consequence of his wife's accession.
Victoria's husband was, I believe, a little miffed not to be invited to share
the throne, but the early Hanoverians' inability to speak English (and the
first George's greater interests in his German possessions than in his British
realms) had left unhappy memories. So he had to be content with "Prince
Consort".
Michael Lewis
--------------------------------------
Brandle Pty Limited, Sydney, Australia
www.brandle.com.au
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