[Wittrs] Re: What is "Originalism" [Larry Solum's View]

  • From: "Rosenthal, Lawrence" <rosentha@xxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <lsolum@xxxxxxxxx>, "Sean Wilson" <whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Sun, 2 May 2010 14:36:00 -0700

I am certainly not competent to engage in the theoretical debate between 
Professor Solum and Dr. Wilson.  But I do think that Professor Solum's last 
point may explain why some of us suspect that the so-called New Originalism 
provides no greater constraint that nonoriginalism, at least as both are 
typically practiced.
 
An originalism based on the original intentions of the framing generation, as 
reflected in the original expected applications of constitutional text, would 
of course produce substantial constraint, and much different outcomes than 
those generally advocated by nonoriginalists.  But, as Professor Solum points 
out, the current generation of originalist scholars, in the main, rejects 
"original intended applications," and instead focuses on the original public 
meaning of constitutional text, which can be applied much differently than in 
the framing era if changed circumstances or understandings warrant.  I wonder 
if this approach is meaningfully different from nonoriginalism.  Consider Jack 
Balkin's claim that there is an originalist basis for a right to abortion.  As 
I understand his argument, it begins with the claim that the original meaning 
of the Equal Protection Clause is to protect "equality," and then it sets 
originalism aside and makes what a series of entirely nonoriginalist arguments 
about how a prohibition on abortion denies women equality.  Professor Balkin 
also argues that the original meaning of the Privileges or Immunities Clause 
(and maybe the Due Process Clause as well) is to protect rights regarded as 
fundamental, and then makes a series of nonoriginalist arguments that amount to 
the claim that since the framing era, the right to abortion has come to be seen 
as part of a fundamental right of sexual autonomy.  How would a nonoriginalist 
approach the issue any differently?  Nonoriginalists do not ignore text, even 
though they think it has evolving content, and they typically make the same 
arguments about equality and fundamental rights that Balkin advances.  New 
originalists concede that constitutional text can be vague or ambiguous, and 
this may require nonoriginalist construction.   Isn't that essentially the same 
position as that of most  nonoriginalists?  It seems to me that all but the 
most radical nonoriginalists agree that it is only the most open-ended texts 
that are properly regarded as of an evolving character -- the same texts that 
the New Originalists will generally concede are often vague or ambiguous 
because the "original semantic meaning" is fixed at a high level of generality. 
 At the level of theory, there may be a sharp difference between New 
Originalism and nonoriginalism, but when it comes to deciding actual cases, 
isn't Professor Johnson right that original meaning is never where "the action" 
is?  Actual constitutional adjudication seems to always depend on the kind of 
nonoriginalist arguments championed by Professor Balkin, at least when it comes 
to the kind of open-ended constitutional text that nonoriginalists claim as 
their domain. 
 
Larry Rosenthal
Chapman University School of Law

________________________________

From: conlawprof-bounces@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx on behalf of Lawrence Solum
Sent: Sun 5/2/2010 2:07 PM
To: Sean Wilson
Cc: wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx; conlawprof@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: Re: What is "Originalism" [Larry Solum's View]


Once again, thank you to Sean Wilson for his very thoughtful comments, which 
again deserve a far more thorough reply than I can provide on this occasion. 

Ultimately, nothing hangs on the name we give a theory.  Contemporary 
originalism (the so-called "New Originalism" or "Original Public Meaning 
Originalism") focuses on the original public meaning of each provision of the 
constitutional text.  My claim (which Sean disputes) is that the "original 
public meaning" is the conventional semantic meaning as fixed by linguistic 
facts as they stood at the time each provision was framed and ratified.  So far 
as I can tell, a generalized version of this claim (which accounts of the 
differences between "original intentions of the framers," "original 
understandings of the ratifiers," and "original public meaning" is one of two 
focal points of the theorists who self identify as "originalist."  The second 
characteristic claim is that constitutional practice should be defeasibly 
constrained by that original meaning of the text.

For this reason, I believe that the coined word "originalism" is now generally 
understood to refer to views that affirm these two theses (fixation and 
constraint).  And therefore, I believe that my usage of the term "originalism" 
is a fair one.

So when Sean writes,


        It seems to me that for one to truly become "originalist," one must 
leave linguistics altogether. That's the whole point, isn't it? That we cannot 
take the meaning of the words in the Constitution as "their meaning," we must 
delve into history and time in order to find the behavior and lives of dead 
people so that we can pretend that ordinary words have fixed objects. We do 
this not under warrant of any theory of language, but because this communion 
with Noah is said to be what "law is."
        
        

I must respectfully disagree.  The whole idea of the New Originalism as I 
understand it, is to reject the equation of original meaning with original 
expected applications, and to move instead to the linguistic meaning or 
semantic content of the text.  Originalism is not about "fixed objects" or 
"fixed applications," it is about the constraining force of fixed semantic 
content. 

On Sun, May 2, 2010 at 3:51 PM, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:


        Hi Larry.
        
        Thanks for your input. Let me offer this by way of brief reply. (Please 
don't feel the need to answer if you don't want to).
        
        My central objection to your view can be stated very succinctly. If 
originalism is a theory about law that is predicated upon an accurate account 
of  linguistics -- which I contend it is not -- we could never call such a 
thing "originalism." Rather, we should want to call it by either one of two 
names: (a) the name of the purportedly-accurate linguistic theory; or (b) the 
name for making sure judges get language right. Let me explain.
        
        If you believe that family resemblance provides a loose structure for 
words, and that this structure must be obeyed by judges whenever reading those 
sorts of words, this would never be "originalist." It would be something like 
"semanticist" (semanticistic?) or perhaps "cluster-theory interpretation" 
(cluster-theory hermeneutics??).
        
        Note that this works the same if family resemblance is not accurate 
(say, if language was always determinate). Let's imagine a world where language 
was Tractarian (meaning, a picture of reality). If, in fact, each use of 
language matched some existing state of affairs in the world -- such that we 
could form undeniable true/false propositions about the world -- the urging of 
judges to be obedient to those propositions would not be "originalism." It 
would be either a Tractarian or picture-semantic interpretive theory.
        
        How about this: language only ever means what reasonable people of the 
community say it means. This view is Russellian. So if one says that judges 
should give words only their reasonable meaning, one is a Russellian 
semanticist, not an "originalist."
        
        It seems to me that for one to truly become "originalist," one must 
leave linguistics altogether. That's the whole point, isn't it? That we cannot 
take the meaning of the words in the Constitution as "their meaning," we must 
delve into history and time in order to find the behavior and lives of dead 
people so that we can pretend that ordinary words have fixed objects. We do 
this not under warrant of any theory of language, but because this communion 
with Noah is said to be what "law is."
        
        Here's what I am trying to say: originailsm cannot come to anyone by 
language, because there is nothing in language which says that meaning is 
Amish.  In fact, to say that meaning is Amish is to invite dogma. To say that 
it is Tractarian or Russellian is only to invite error.
        
        Regards and thanks.
        

        Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
        Assistant Professor
        Wright State University
        Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org <http://seanwilson.org/> 
        SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
        Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html
        
        
        
        
        ________________________________
        From: Lawrence Solum <lsolum@xxxxxxxxx>
        
        To: Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx>
        Cc: conlawprof@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx; wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
        Sent: Sun, May 2, 2010 3:01:50 PM
        Subject: [C] [Wittrs] Re: What is "Originalism" [Larry Solum's View]
        

        I regret that I cannot reply to Sean Wilson's point in detail.  Let me 
simply say three things.
        
        First, I agree with Sean that "family resemblance" concepts (or words 
and phrases) do pose an interesting challenge to the fixation thesis.  There 
are no fixed criteria for the determining the application of such concepts; 
rather their applications are determined by the practices of the linguistic 
community, or by "forms of life."  Unlike Sean, I am skeptical of the claim 
that most of the language in the constitution has this quality.
        
        Second, I believe that Sean would agree that the meaning of a 
particular utterance that employs a word or phrase that is a family resemblance 
concept is "fixed" by linguistic facts at the time of utterance.  Family 
resemblance concepts are not utterly shapeless.  To take Wittgenstein's 
example, of "games."  It might be the case that there are no features that all 
games share, although there are a series of resemblances between particular 
games that define a "family."  But this does not imply that the meaning of the 
word "game" on a particular occasion is not constrained by linguistic practices 
at the time of utterance.  Given linguistic practices today, some things cannot 
count as "games"--goldfish, Pluto, and spark plugs.  From my vantage point, 
Sean's argument, if it were true, would establish that some words and phrases 
have a certain amount of "looseness" built into them that goes beyond 
vagueness.  As I see it, if this claim were true, it
         would require a careful restatement of originalism, but it would not 
alter the core of the claim represented by the fixation thesis.
        
        Third, it is important to distinguish between the different senses of 
the term "meaning."  I do not mean to claim that meaning is fixed in the 
"applicative sense" of the word "meaning."  It is the "linguistic meaning" or 
"semantic content" that originalists believe is fixed by linguistic facts at 
the time of utterance.
        
        As always, I have profited from Sean's point.  They deserve a full and 
deep reply--which I hope I might offer on some future occasion.
        
        

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