I am certainly not competent to engage in the theoretical debate between Professor Solum and Dr. Wilson. But I do think that Professor Solum's last point may explain why some of us suspect that the so-called New Originalism provides no greater constraint that nonoriginalism, at least as both are typically practiced. An originalism based on the original intentions of the framing generation, as reflected in the original expected applications of constitutional text, would of course produce substantial constraint, and much different outcomes than those generally advocated by nonoriginalists. But, as Professor Solum points out, the current generation of originalist scholars, in the main, rejects "original intended applications," and instead focuses on the original public meaning of constitutional text, which can be applied much differently than in the framing era if changed circumstances or understandings warrant. I wonder if this approach is meaningfully different from nonoriginalism. Consider Jack Balkin's claim that there is an originalist basis for a right to abortion. As I understand his argument, it begins with the claim that the original meaning of the Equal Protection Clause is to protect "equality," and then it sets originalism aside and makes what a series of entirely nonoriginalist arguments about how a prohibition on abortion denies women equality. Professor Balkin also argues that the original meaning of the Privileges or Immunities Clause (and maybe the Due Process Clause as well) is to protect rights regarded as fundamental, and then makes a series of nonoriginalist arguments that amount to the claim that since the framing era, the right to abortion has come to be seen as part of a fundamental right of sexual autonomy. How would a nonoriginalist approach the issue any differently? Nonoriginalists do not ignore text, even though they think it has evolving content, and they typically make the same arguments about equality and fundamental rights that Balkin advances. New originalists concede that constitutional text can be vague or ambiguous, and this may require nonoriginalist construction. Isn't that essentially the same position as that of most nonoriginalists? It seems to me that all but the most radical nonoriginalists agree that it is only the most open-ended texts that are properly regarded as of an evolving character -- the same texts that the New Originalists will generally concede are often vague or ambiguous because the "original semantic meaning" is fixed at a high level of generality. At the level of theory, there may be a sharp difference between New Originalism and nonoriginalism, but when it comes to deciding actual cases, isn't Professor Johnson right that original meaning is never where "the action" is? Actual constitutional adjudication seems to always depend on the kind of nonoriginalist arguments championed by Professor Balkin, at least when it comes to the kind of open-ended constitutional text that nonoriginalists claim as their domain. Larry Rosenthal Chapman University School of Law ________________________________ From: conlawprof-bounces@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx on behalf of Lawrence Solum Sent: Sun 5/2/2010 2:07 PM To: Sean Wilson Cc: wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx; conlawprof@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx Subject: Re: What is "Originalism" [Larry Solum's View] Once again, thank you to Sean Wilson for his very thoughtful comments, which again deserve a far more thorough reply than I can provide on this occasion. Ultimately, nothing hangs on the name we give a theory. Contemporary originalism (the so-called "New Originalism" or "Original Public Meaning Originalism") focuses on the original public meaning of each provision of the constitutional text. My claim (which Sean disputes) is that the "original public meaning" is the conventional semantic meaning as fixed by linguistic facts as they stood at the time each provision was framed and ratified. So far as I can tell, a generalized version of this claim (which accounts of the differences between "original intentions of the framers," "original understandings of the ratifiers," and "original public meaning" is one of two focal points of the theorists who self identify as "originalist." The second characteristic claim is that constitutional practice should be defeasibly constrained by that original meaning of the text. For this reason, I believe that the coined word "originalism" is now generally understood to refer to views that affirm these two theses (fixation and constraint). And therefore, I believe that my usage of the term "originalism" is a fair one. So when Sean writes, It seems to me that for one to truly become "originalist," one must leave linguistics altogether. That's the whole point, isn't it? That we cannot take the meaning of the words in the Constitution as "their meaning," we must delve into history and time in order to find the behavior and lives of dead people so that we can pretend that ordinary words have fixed objects. We do this not under warrant of any theory of language, but because this communion with Noah is said to be what "law is." I must respectfully disagree. The whole idea of the New Originalism as I understand it, is to reject the equation of original meaning with original expected applications, and to move instead to the linguistic meaning or semantic content of the text. Originalism is not about "fixed objects" or "fixed applications," it is about the constraining force of fixed semantic content. On Sun, May 2, 2010 at 3:51 PM, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx> wrote: Hi Larry. Thanks for your input. Let me offer this by way of brief reply. (Please don't feel the need to answer if you don't want to). My central objection to your view can be stated very succinctly. If originalism is a theory about law that is predicated upon an accurate account of linguistics -- which I contend it is not -- we could never call such a thing "originalism." Rather, we should want to call it by either one of two names: (a) the name of the purportedly-accurate linguistic theory; or (b) the name for making sure judges get language right. Let me explain. If you believe that family resemblance provides a loose structure for words, and that this structure must be obeyed by judges whenever reading those sorts of words, this would never be "originalist." It would be something like "semanticist" (semanticistic?) or perhaps "cluster-theory interpretation" (cluster-theory hermeneutics??). Note that this works the same if family resemblance is not accurate (say, if language was always determinate). Let's imagine a world where language was Tractarian (meaning, a picture of reality). If, in fact, each use of language matched some existing state of affairs in the world -- such that we could form undeniable true/false propositions about the world -- the urging of judges to be obedient to those propositions would not be "originalism." It would be either a Tractarian or picture-semantic interpretive theory. How about this: language only ever means what reasonable people of the community say it means. This view is Russellian. So if one says that judges should give words only their reasonable meaning, one is a Russellian semanticist, not an "originalist." It seems to me that for one to truly become "originalist," one must leave linguistics altogether. That's the whole point, isn't it? That we cannot take the meaning of the words in the Constitution as "their meaning," we must delve into history and time in order to find the behavior and lives of dead people so that we can pretend that ordinary words have fixed objects. We do this not under warrant of any theory of language, but because this communion with Noah is said to be what "law is." Here's what I am trying to say: originailsm cannot come to anyone by language, because there is nothing in language which says that meaning is Amish. In fact, to say that meaning is Amish is to invite dogma. To say that it is Tractarian or Russellian is only to invite error. Regards and thanks. Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq. Assistant Professor Wright State University Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org <http://seanwilson.org/> SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860 Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html ________________________________ From: Lawrence Solum <lsolum@xxxxxxxxx> To: Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx> Cc: conlawprof@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx; wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx Sent: Sun, May 2, 2010 3:01:50 PM Subject: [C] [Wittrs] Re: What is "Originalism" [Larry Solum's View] I regret that I cannot reply to Sean Wilson's point in detail. Let me simply say three things. First, I agree with Sean that "family resemblance" concepts (or words and phrases) do pose an interesting challenge to the fixation thesis. There are no fixed criteria for the determining the application of such concepts; rather their applications are determined by the practices of the linguistic community, or by "forms of life." Unlike Sean, I am skeptical of the claim that most of the language in the constitution has this quality. Second, I believe that Sean would agree that the meaning of a particular utterance that employs a word or phrase that is a family resemblance concept is "fixed" by linguistic facts at the time of utterance. Family resemblance concepts are not utterly shapeless. To take Wittgenstein's example, of "games." It might be the case that there are no features that all games share, although there are a series of resemblances between particular games that define a "family." But this does not imply that the meaning of the word "game" on a particular occasion is not constrained by linguistic practices at the time of utterance. Given linguistic practices today, some things cannot count as "games"--goldfish, Pluto, and spark plugs. From my vantage point, Sean's argument, if it were true, would establish that some words and phrases have a certain amount of "looseness" built into them that goes beyond vagueness. As I see it, if this claim were true, it would require a careful restatement of originalism, but it would not alter the core of the claim represented by the fixation thesis. Third, it is important to distinguish between the different senses of the term "meaning." I do not mean to claim that meaning is fixed in the "applicative sense" of the word "meaning." It is the "linguistic meaning" or "semantic content" that originalists believe is fixed by linguistic facts at the time of utterance. As always, I have profited from Sean's point. They deserve a full and deep reply--which I hope I might offer on some future occasion. ========================================= Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/