Donal McEvoy writes: >had thought maybe it was an interesting question in philosophical logic >that was being broached re is it redundant or tautological or something to >propose 'X & X'. I should have known by the fact the fella from Argentina had >posted nothing. Previously, I shown that 'p -> p & p' _is_ a tautology. What's even more disconcering is that 'p <-> p & p' also is. That is, for formal logic, 'p' and 'p & p' are _logically equivalent_. Wonder what Wittgenstein or his local defender, R. Henninge, may say about that! p <-> p & p 1 1 1 1 1 0 1 0 0 0 Cheers, JL ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html