With reference to your question (and eschewing all political commentary), I would say, yes, the naturalistic fallacy (Hume's version) is indeed a logical fallacy. An argument with all (only) empirical premises cannot validly conclude with a moral or any value judgement. That's what I believe and I think you ought to agree. On his dacha, Walter O Quoting Eric <mr.eric.yost@xxxxxxxxx>: > >> Compare and contrast: many believe that much of the turmoil in the near > east is caused (con-caused) by the very existence of the state of Israel. > Come onto stage the "humean" theorist who tells me that there is no "proof" > of that. > > > > It is impossible to prove "beliefs" (values) by facts, is it not? > > One cannot demonstrate or prove values by facts--z.b., to show those who > question the worth of Israel's existence are fools--but one CAN report the > statistical results of opinion polls, and use those results to "update a web > of beliefs" (Quine). > > Eric > > ------------------------------------------------------------------ > To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, > digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html > ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html