[lit-ideas] Re: My Cup of Tea
- From: Omar Kusturica <omarkusto@xxxxxxxxx>
- To: "lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx" <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Thu, 2 Jan 2014 12:53:24 -0800 (PST)
In Serbian, you wouldn't need either 'a cup of tea' or 'a cup with tea.' You
would need 'šolju čaja.' where the inflection of the second noun would indicate
what is meant, without the use of preposition. In fact, to use a preposition
would be perceived as awkward and/or unintelligible. To ask for 'a cup with
tea' might be interpreted to mean that I am asking for the tea and the cup to
be brought without pouring the tea into the cup, or some such. O.K.
On Thursday, January 2, 2014 9:17 PM, Donal McEvoy <donalmcevoyuk@xxxxxxxxxxx>
wrote:
Now this kind of stuff, compared to Einstein v Newton, is not even a tempest in
a thimble.
Perhaps someone on the list knows what is the most trivial, unimportant and
uninteresting work ever produced by Newton or Einstein? Then we might compare
it with this kind of stuff. In the light of that comparison, we may move on to
discuss who is really entitled to use expressions like "tempest in a tea cup";
and who is entitled to use other expressions - like "people in glass houses
shouldn't throw stones".
Dnl
On Thursday, 2 January 2014, 19:55, Walter C. Okshevsky <wokshevs@xxxxxx> wrote:
Grice-Okshevsky-Wittgenstein. Another great line right up there with
Shutt-Lemaire-Lafleur, Cashman-Espo-Hodge, and Hadfield-Ratelle-Gilbert!
Many thanks to Jl for vindicating the importance and relevance of my
philosophical musings.
Talking to the lions on the Avalon, and ordering a box with pizza,
Walter O
Quoting Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx:
> In a message dated 12/31/2013 2:09:22 P.M. Eastern Standard Time,
> omarkusto@xxxxxxxxx writes:
> Well, just as we can intelligibly say 'a bottle of vodka,' without
> specifying the quantity, so it seems to me that we can intelligibly say 'a
> box of
> pizza' without specifying the quantity. A box of pizza being delivered is
> not necessarily equivalent to what you get when you order 'a pizza' in a
> restaurant. It may be that, ehem, there are 'deeper' philosophical issues at
>
> stake that escape me at present.
>
> Similarly, Grice raises doubts as to the expression,
>
> 'cup of tea'
>
> with or without the qualifying, 'nice cup of tea'.
>
> Strictly, it should be, he notes, 'cup
WITH tea'.
>
> I follow his argument: 'of' is etymologically, 'off', even if the Brits
> pronounce it 'ov'. A cup off tea would thus IMPLICATE (to use Grice's
> parlance) something like what is implicated by 'a trip OFF shore'.
>
> Wittgenstein ("Philosophical Grammar") speaks of a 'pint of beer' within
> what he calls a 'form of life'/'language game' that provokes the same kind of
>
> linguistic puzzles.
>
> Cheers,
>
> Speranza
>
>
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