[geocentrism] parallax

  • From: "philip madsen" <pma15027@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: <geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Sun, 25 May 2008 15:15:38 +1000

I almost forgot these few words on parallax..  Its years since we last 
discussed this subject on this list, and I thought resolved it yet here we go 
again.  

Not complaining because this new argument was presented by both sides, that the 
stars have to be centred on the sun for parallax to be identical in both 
systems..  

Before I specifically detail my concerns with this, I will first present my 
basic concept of parallax which the technician learned..  and you all can have 
the opportunity to tell me if I am wrong. 

Parallax was first presented to me as parallax error, In a lesson on meters and 
how to read them correctly.  Because the scale was behind the moving pointer we 
were shown that to read the meter correctly and avoid parallax error the eye 
had to be directly in the same line as the moving pointer and the scale mark 
being read. To this end the meter face scale had a small mirror. All that was 
necessary was to keep the pointer in line with its reflection to get a precise 
reading. 

This error is quite significant, and it would be the same error if one moved 
the meter to the left or right, as it was if one moved the head. Purely a 
relative positions phenomena. 

With out any complication, isn't that parallax? 

Two proximate stars in the distance, one closer. From the summer side of the 
sun the further star will be seen to the right of the closer. From the winter 
side of the sun it will be seen on the left side of the closer..  

Straight common sense for a heliocentric orbiting world. ..  But if the world 
was fixed, and all the stars moved across the sky, as it appears to us the 
observer, from my angle this parallax movement (error) will be identical..  The 
meter was moved instead of my head!!!!

I can imagine that a central position relative to a triangulation with the sun 
may effect the deviation angles off centre, but this can be computed from 
knowledge of the phase difference in the sun and stars angular speed. relative 
to a fixed longitude on the world. Where does this need for centering the 
universe on the sun instead of the world, come from???

Curious. Thats my basic understanding.. I will now go draw some geometry and 
figure it out.   ...

Philip. 


  ----- Original Message ----- 
  From: Regner Trampedach 
  To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx 
  Sent: Sunday, May 25, 2008 10:56 AM
  Subject: [geocentrism] Re: Inertia


  No worries, Paul, sorry for the wait.

        Regner


  Paul Deema wrote: 
    Regner T 
    A timely post!
    I was beginning to wilt under the Goebbels gambit from Allen re 
gravity/inertia and inertia/distant_stars. Thank you for restoring my 
confidence in physics and my limited understanding of same.
    Paul D




    ----- Original Message ----
    From: Regner Trampedach <art@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx>
    To: geocentrism@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
    Sent: Friday, 23 May, 2008 4:54:26 AM
    Subject: [geocentrism] Inertia

    I am afraid I don't have the time to dig up all the relevant posts and reply
    to them individually. This post, however, should address many issues
    raised over the concept of inertia in a range of threads in this forum.

    In Philip Madsen's post, 10/05/2008 he correctly points out the difference
    between "equivalence" and "equality". That is an important distinction.
    In physics and astronomy we don't have a habit of redefining words, as
    opposed to, say, in politics...

    a) Gravity and inertia are not the same. 
    b) Gravitational mass and inertial mass, do seem to be the same (no
        observations have contradicted this, to date).
    c) Inertia cannot be caused by gravity from the distant stars - no matter 
how
        far away or how the are distributed. The gravitational force from the
        distant stars is minuscule compared to all the other forces we are 
subject
        to - do the math!
          If the Universe (on large scales) has a smooth matter distribution, 
the
        gravity from all directions will cancel each other. It is obviously not
        completely uniform, so let's explore the other extreme: Only stars from
        one direction, say, a cone of 30° opening angle contribute any gravity.
        The pull from all those stars, back to the beginning of time, would be
        a million-million times feebler than gravity from Earth. If the Universe
        is only 6000 years old (and gravity travels at the speed of light) the 
pull
        from those stars would be yet another factor of a million times feebler.
          And there is of course the problem about direction. How can the 
distant
        stars know which way we are trying to move a body, and then counter-
        act that motion with a gravitational pull in the opposite direction. It 
can't
        make sense, whichever way you look at it.
    d) Maybe I need to point out that forces are vectors and they are additive.
        That means, that if you have two forces of equal magnitude but opposite
        direction, the nett-force will be exactly zero. And the behaviour of an
        object in that zero nett-force field does not depend in the slightest 
on how
        that zero came about; whether it be from no forces at all, or from huge,
        but opposing forces. Only the (vector-)sum matters.
    e) If gravity created inertial mass, we would be able to predict the mass of
        objects from the law of gravity - we can't! We can only observe and use
        Newton's 2nd law (F = m*a) and maybe the law of gravity or others, to
        infer the mass.
    f) There has been other philosophical theories about the distant stars 
"somehow"
        giving rise to inertia, but no successful physical theory that I am 
aware of.
    g) The best current candidate for a inertial field, is the Higg's field, 
mediated by
        the Higg's boson - but there are, of course, competing theories. The 
Large
        Hadron Collider (LHC) at CERN, opening later this year, should be able 
to
        detect the Higg's boson if it exists. And the Higg's field would be a 
local
        field, not depending on the totality of stars in the Universe.
    h) Lastly, but very important: We know how inertia works, and not knowing
        why, doesn't really change that. Claiming that classical mechanics 
doesn't work
        because we don't know where inertia comes from, is therefore nothing but
        obstruction and obfuscation from the issues at hand. Finding out what 
gives
        rise to inertia is a separate and obviously very interesting question.

    I have tried to address most of the inertial issues that have surfaced in 
this forum
    lately (I predict that Allen will disagree - I must be a psychic...) and 
the verbosity
    (I apologize) is due to an attempt at catching some of the most glaring 
objections
    that could arise.

               Regner



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