[lit-ideas] Re: grades & kleenex
- From: andy amago <aamago@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx, lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Fri, 7 May 2004 20:46:49 -0400 (GMT-04:00)
So if I understand correctly, there was no subjective form of the feminine
pronoun, just the objective? If so, wouldn't that be the same thing, not to be
able to say she as distinct from he? Wait, wait, don't tell me. I got it.
There was only one form. She as distinct from her. So her picked berries in
the woods. So did him pick berries in the woods too?
I'm being a regular BOME head tonight.
A.A.
-----Original Message-----
From: Harold Hungerford <hh@xxxxxxxxx>
Sent: May 7, 2004 1:54 PM
To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: grades & kleenex
No. it isn't. There has been a "feminine pronoun" since the earliest
written records, and certainly before that. What your source might have
said is that "she" came into use in the twelfth century, replacing the
earlier "heo." The earliest citation for "she" in the Oxford English
Dictionary is dated 1154.
Harold Hungerford
On May 7, 2004, at 5:01 AM, andy amago wrote:
I read someplace that the feminine pronoun didn't exist until I can't
remember what century. Is that correct?
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