Geary: "For example, if I say: "Women make me hot." That's a Literary expression. But if I say: "Why do women make me hot?" Ah, that's a Philosophical expression." Point taken. But a philosophical expression is a philosophical expression is a philosophical expression. And what's worse, you can provide a philosophical expression OF a literary expression. I never understood Americans using 'hot', as in: i. Women make me hot. as opposed to ii. Females makes me hot. ----- The use of 'woman', as Chomsky notes, comes out, in semantic predicate calculus as -MALE+ADULT, i.e. 'female adult'. The difference, he notes, is implicatural ("She is a nice woman" vs. "She is a nice female adult"). The problem with 'makes _one_ hot' is in 'make'. A woman makes a cake, say. But a woman makes 'hot'? The stratagem by lexicologists is to use the personal pronoun varialble, 'one': "to make one's hot". This indicates via predicative analyses that in ii, the utterer (Geary) is hot. Americans may also be heard as using 'hot' as applied directly to the subject (grammatical) subject. I submit that while "Women make me hot" displays 'women' as the grammatical subject of the sentence, the LOGICAL subject is Geary. To turn 'women' into the logical subject you need to say: ii. Women ARE hot (as they make me) or some such -- but where the guardedness in the expression may trigger the wrong implicatum. Geary's example of _causa finalis_: "why do women make me hot?" is neither here nor there. While this indeed marks a philosophical expression, it does so by pointing to a possible solution: "Women make me hot BECAUSE OF "Y"" -- where 'y' is the antecedent of the counterfactual, modal, 'y --> x" -- and where 'x' represents the state of affairs "Women make Geary hot". "Women make Geary hot" is an 'event'-sentence. It does not describe a fact; it describes an event. Similarly, 'y' must stand for the EVENT that causes the other event. Strawson examined cases like "The king of France is not a subject", since there is no such a thing as 'the king of France'. The philosophical expression, 'why do women make me hot?' need in that case be analysed in terms of 'implicatum' and truth-value gaps. In a case where 'x' does NOT apply (cfr. "Ice makes me hot"), the corresponding 'why' query should be analysed in logical formal terms, so that the answer to "why does ice make me hot?" does NOT presuppose that ice makes me hot. (Cfr. "Why is she such a bitch?" -- said of a bitch. "She isn't, you know" being a PROPER reply, indeed polite. Etc. Speranza ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html