[lit-ideas] Re: Must the Word be Literate?
- From: Donal McEvoy <donalmcevoyuk@xxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
- Date: Tue, 2 Oct 2007 23:48:02 +0100 (BST)
--- Robert Paul <rpaul@xxxxxxxx> wrote:
> Yet when one tries to say what thought one is
> expressing the 'thought' seems inevitably to take on a linguistic shape.
Yes, but this would not show that there were not operative 'mental states'
prior to linguistic expression - even if saying what the content of those
states are _in language_ inevitably gives them "a linguistic shape." And if
there are operative 'mental states' prior to their expression - or some kind
of expression derived from them - then surely it does say something to speak
of this as being the case.
The alternatives, either that mental states and their linguistic expression
are simultaneuous or the mental state of a linguistic expression follows that
expression, are surely even more problemmatic?
Donal
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