atw: Re: Change of collective noun use and other changes - why? Just because [SEC=UNCLASSIFIED]

  • From: Ros Byrne <ros.byrne@xxxxxxx>
  • To: austechwriter@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Tue, 20 Mar 2012 08:42:39 +1100

Ouch!

Howard and Michelle - I fear that ridicule is likely to be counter-productive.

(It's a long story about communication climate, communication that is perceived 
is being 'superior' rather than equal etc).

Glad to see you're also recommending less-risky ways to promote language 
behaviors we want to encourage.

Ros
__

On 19/03/2012, at 1:55 PM, Howard Silcock wrote:

> Hi Michelle
> I share your dislike of 'below' as an adjective, but I have to admit that 
> it's a bit strange that 'above' is accepted in the parallel usage - for 
> example, 'the above paragraph' is OK but 'the below paragraph' is frowned on. 
> I think we're going to have to give up and ride in the direction the horse is 
> going pretty soon.
>  
> On your general point about language lovers and linguistic change, my advice 
> to language-lovers is to be proactive and point out - even ridicule - the 
> worst examples and to write to dictionary-compilers and make your views 
> known. After all, we are professional language-users. We can't stop change 
> but we can point out the worst abuses and it can have an effect.
>  
> Howard 
> 
> 
> On 19 March 2012 12:55, Michelle Hallett <michelle@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> Michael,
> 
> I think this is an interesting explanation and may well explain why people 
> are using 'below' as an adjective rather than an adverb (after all, there is 
> no verb in the sentence). But it doesn't explain the wholesale confusion 
> between possessive and plural by well educated professional native English 
> speakers. I don't mind the language changing. Additions like WTF and ROFL 
> amuse me. But I don't like the idea that language might be changing because 
> people are lazy in its use
> 
> Michelle
> 
> 
> 
> On 19/03/2012, at 11:13 AM, Michael Lewis <michael.lewis@xxxxxxxxx> wrote:
> 
>> Frequently, yes - but "most frequently"? Hardly - unless by "don't know" you 
>> mean "don't know it the way I do". Generations ago, well educated people 
>> used expressions like "methinks he is a dastard knave" and "it meseems that 
>> the apocalypse is nigh". The vocabulary and the grammar have changed, but 
>> not because of non-native speakers.
>> 
>> There's an underlying point that is valid, though. Native speakers are like 
>> non-native speakers in that they over-regularise. That's why most nouns 
>> finish up taking the normal -s (or -es) in the plural, instead of the 
>> earlier forms like "sistren" (though we still retain "brethren" in special 
>> contexts, and "children" is still more common than "childs").
>> 
>> We can see this happening with young children. They use the correct form 
>> "men" at first, then learn the rule about adding "-s" and change to "mans" 
>> for a while, then they re-learn "men" as an exception to the general rule. 
>> Much language change is simply the fading away of exceptions, especially the 
>> rare ones - the verb "be" retains its odd inflexions because we all use it 
>> too often to get a chance to forget the specifics, but "leaped" has 
>> superseded "leapt" in most cases.
>> 
>> - Michael
>> 
>> 
>> On 19 March 2012 10:26, <Peter.Martin@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxxx> wrote:
>> Michelle: 
>> 
>> Language is most frequently changed by those who don't know the language 
>> rather than those "who really care about it".   
>> 
> 

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