SWM wrote: >Joseph Polanik wrote: >>the question is not whether Dennett denies subjective experience. the >>question is whether he has changed the definition of 'understanding'. >>if he has, his thesis (whatever it is) is irrelevant to the question >>of whether syntax can cause understanding as Seale defines >>'understanding'. >... he has offered a different way of understanding understanding, of >conceptualizing it, of explaining it. the man in the CR does not experience understanding chinese. whether or not he has a theory of understanding is beside the point. >But, insofar as "understanding" includes what we have often referred >to here and elsewhere as being aware of what we are doing in >understanding anything, having that sense of subjective recognition, >etc., etc. (which is to say having a subjective experience moment with >each instance of understanding), Dennett does not deny any of that. but, as an eliminative materialist, Dennett is committed to eliminating all use of any language that might refer to the subjective experience you say he does not deny. over here at Tony's Linguistic Pub, that silliness is regarded as a violation of TLP 5.6; but, if you and the other regulars at Ludwig's Ordinary Language Sport Utility Bar are willing to self-inflict a linguistic lobotomy just because the Dennett tells you to; then, I say ... go for it. Joe -- Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware @^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@ http://what-am-i.net @^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@ ========================================== Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/