[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 155

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 28 Feb 2010 10:53:14 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (13 Messages)

Messages

1a.

Strawson on Experience and Experiencers

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 5:30 am (PST)





BruceD wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>>What is the relationship between the experience and the experiencer?

>>an experiencer experiences experiences?

>>an experiencer has experiences?

>Which is to say, would you agree, that the relationship between the
>experiencer and what is experienced is not causal, but, let's say,
>instrumental (in the sense of it suits my purpose to take them to be)?

a lot depends on what you mean by '*what* is experienced'. suppose you
look at a red ball. would you say that you experience the physical
object that appears to you as a red ball; or, would you say that you
experience redness, roundness and so on?

Joe

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1b.

Strawson on Experience and Experiencers

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 10:21 am (PST)



Cayuse wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>what is known is that there is experience and there is experiencing;
>>but, no way to explain that fact without inferring that there is an
>>experiencer. for one example, your own attempt to explain how there is
>>experience without anything that experiences failed miserably.

>More foot stamping? Show me where it fails.

the last time this issue came up, we got to the point where you admitted
that there is experiencing (of an afterimage, to be specific); but, you
then declined to explain how it was possible that there is experiencing
an afterimage while there is nothing experiencing an afterimage. you
abandoned the argument at that point; hence, it failed.

Joe

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1c.

Strawson on Experience and Experiencers

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 10:53 am (PST)



BruceD wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>what is known is that there is experience and there is experiencing;

>Is this not a special case of knowing?

suppose you imagine yourself in a high alpine meadow on a sunny day
discussing philosophy with a blue unicorn. is that a case of knowing? (I
would say 'no'.) is that a case of experiencing? (I would say 'yes').

hence, knowing is a subset of experiencing.

>Perhaps there is "no way to explain" because all explanations begin
>with with a person experiencing himself and his world.

quite possible.

Joe

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1d.

Re: Strawson on Experience and Experiencers

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 12:52 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote:

> suppose you imagine yourself in a high alpine meadow on a sunny day
> discussing philosophy with a blue unicorn. is that a case of knowing?
(I
> would say 'no'.) is that a case of experiencing? (I would say 'yes').
>
> hence, knowing is a subset of experiencing.

I can along with this: We can be immersed in the immediacy of experience
without reflection, on the one hand. On the other, we can recognize that
we are having a conversation with a blue unicorn, be puzzled, alarmed,
and yet feel that something came of it.

Let's see how close I am to you.

1- For me, there is a psychological state in which we are cognizant of
being a person, a agent who is having and manipulating this state. There
are other states in which this doesn't hold.

2- One can, if wishes, as some Buddhists texts do, claim that the sense
of agency is an illusion and that the enlightened state is "thoughts
without a thinker."

bruce

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1e.

Re: Strawson on Experience and Experiencers

Posted by: "gabuddabout" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 1:53 pm (PST)





--- In WittrsAMR@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
>
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@> wrote:
>
> <snip>
>
> >
> > --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
> >
> > > We are in agreement on the necessity of an experiencer in the above formulation. Where we have disagreed is over what it means to be an "experiencer". -- SWM
> >
> > Just what does it mean by your lights? I'll look around and see if you specify elsewhere.
> >
> > bruce
> >
> > =========================================
>
> I don't even know how to begin answering this question after all the discussions we've had to date. What do you think I've been writing, on this and all the other lists, all this time? What have we been arguing about??? -- SWM

Hi Bruce and Stuart,

The reason why this issue will be around forever, at least according to Colin McGinn, is that conceptual dualism is not amenable to elimination. Or is it?

Eliminative materialism a la Dennett simply denies that something like ontological subjectivity can be a matter of science. It is eliminative in the sense that science is supposed to be helpless in discussing how ontological subjectivity can happen in a world consisting entirely of physical events. The premise at issue here is whether science can only be about third-person events (Dennett) or rather if it can also be about what Searle calls "ontological subjectivity." But is not as if Dennett denies he's conscious enough to write a book on how to explain consciousness without explaining ontological subjectivity..

Hacker, like Wittgenstein exactly or not (there was only one Christian too), will say that the thesis that the brain causes ontological subjectivity doesn't have a sense--it is nonsense. I think he's all wet but McGinn's point will forever stand.

Here's how. Let's, for starters, agree with Searle that we may after all find out exactly how the brain causes consciousness on the model, say, of discovering the germ theory of disease. We find what look to be correlates of consciousness first. Then we determine whether they are actually causal and just what mechanisms are involved.

Even if we get all the way, we will have an explanation that still leaves us distinguishing those things which have minds and those things which don't.

Further, it will be left open to anybody to say that no matter how confident we feel about the above explanation, it is still based on induction and subject to possible falsification (or not if it is a computational theory...scattered snickers). Maybe God's voice comes out of the sky at the moment of informational singularity and says we got our explanation all wrong and the correct explanation takes into account quantum gravity on an infinitely dimensional plane.

Then we say, "Oh!"

The point is that it may in principle be possible for there to be an explanation of how consciousness is caused while that explanation is simply too deep for any human mind (and maybe even nonhuman mind except God's and maybe even God come to think of it, for all _anybody_ knows).

So let us submit that we find it in principle scientifically responsible to aim at a theory arrived at by induction which may simply look overwhelmingly plausible.

And the debate can go on forever. Or we can see limits to the debate by understanding what we mean. Then we need a theory of meaning. But Wittgenstein railed against philosophy toying with theories.

But once you have speech acts, it is actually encumbent upon a philosopher to come up with a bare-bones sketch of how speech acts are part of the real world. This eventually is supposed to lead to a biological account of how the brain causes consciousness for Searle and he mentions that this is where he probably parts company with Wittgenstein, what with his theoretical account about why it is senseless to come up with theories if one is merely describing language use.

Well, Wittgenstein is right if one is merely going to describe how language is used.

It's just that one can go deeper.

Well, so what? Go as deep as you want and any possible theory of consciousness is going to appear to be yet another case of consceptual dualism.

Once you got your explanation, you still have two categories in the real world: Those things which have minds (sufficient causal processes which allow ontological subjectivity while being merely physical processes) and those things that don't.

And who in the world would think that a denial of computation would be a denial of physical processes?

Well, simply one who could distinguish enough senses!

So, back to Wittgenstein and how people, especially philosophers with their sometimes crazy and tempting idiosyncratic linguistic usages, say the simplest things as well as the darndest things.

A puzzle for puzzlers a la Wittgenstein.

Is the following argument nonsense?

1. The most complete scientific account of all of nature would come in the form of a series of statements.

2. It is often possible to express the same propositional content with two or more differently worded propositions.

Ergo, 3. There is a shortest way to express all the propositions necessary for the most complete scientific account of all of nature, as compared to longer ways using longer sentences.

So, it would appear that if one is going to focus on describing the uses of language, one is thereby committed to focussing on science as well as on nonsense, one example of which might be "nonsense includes different types as in the statement that pictorial art is a different kind of nonsense than the musical art, since only statements can have senses, if you know what I mean by senses as meanings, art not being about senses of statemsents, ergo...". If you know what I mean.

Perhaps I'm speaking idiosyncratically, if you know what I mean or if you don't, or some other possibility.

I won't say I've proved anything if all the conceptual dualists won't either!

Cheers,
Budd

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1f.

Re: Strawson on Experience and Experiencers

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 3:52 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "gabuddabout" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> Is the following argument nonsense?

> 1. The most complete scientific account of all of nature would come
> in the form of a series of statements.

> 2. It is often possible to express the same propositional content
> with two or more differently worded propositions.

> Ergo, 3. There is a shortest way to express all the propositions
> necessary for the most complete scientific account of all of nature,
> as compared to longer ways using longer sentences.

Yes it's nonsense. I'm also unsure of its relation to the topic of
this thread.

(1) may already be nonsense. It presupposes that there is such a thing
as "the most complete scientific account of all nature". But maybe no
account can be complete, and any account can always be extended to be
more complete (but never reach the "most complete" level). That is to
say, all of nature might not be finitely specifiable.

With (2), you run into a different problem. The alternative
description may be using different concepts, and so be dependent on
different meanings. If we are allowed to introduce new concepts, we
can always shorten descriptions. For example, "pi" (or "\pi" for latex
users) gives a very short finite account of what is not finitely
presentable it we restrict to purely numeric concepts.

As a consequence, any idea of "shortest" would depend on the system of
concepts being used in that account. And since we do not have any
known way of specifying concepts, there's no way to include that
dependency as part of the account.

In a way, it is a little amusing that you raise this issue. For, in
other posts, you have agreed with Searle in his claim that you cannot
get semantics from syntax. Yet this whole argument seems to depend on
there being a way of getting semantics from syntax. I base this
assessment on the fact that "shortness" is a property of syntax, while
an "account of all nature" is a semantic requirement.

Regards,
Neil

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1g.

Re: Strawson on Experience and Experiencers

Posted by: "Cayuse" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 4:28 pm (PST)



Joseph Polanik wrote:
> the last time this issue came up, we got to the point where you
> admitted that there is experiencing (of an afterimage, to be
> specific); but, you then declined to explain how it was possible that
> there is experiencing an afterimage while there is nothing
> experiencing an afterimage. you abandoned the argument at that point;
> hence, it failed.

Explanation, as I understand the word, involves finding a bigger picture
within which the phenomenon under consideration may be accommodated.
Some explanations have practical value in the world (like the explanation of
how the motion of the moon relative to the earth causes the tides) and some
do not (like the explanation that god created the world). What may or may
not exist in some domain "beyond experience" cannot be known, and so any
attempt to explain the existence of experience would be an explanation of
the latter kind. Declining to engage in such pointless speculation does not
amount to failure but to an acknowledgement that we simply cannot know.
There is a limit to explanation, and this is where we meet that limit.
If anything can be considered a failure here, it is the failure to
acknowledge this and thereby to engage in pointless speculation.

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2.1.

Re: [C] Does The Tractatus Invalidate Itself?

Posted by: "College Dropout John O'Connor" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 9:37 am (PST)





[quote title=SWMirsky wrote on Thu, 18 February 2010 14:25

Have you a link or direct quotation for this statement? It seems to me pretty obvious that there ARE and must be several kinds of nonsense, if only because the term "nonsense", like most of our words, had a range of uses and this is very much a part of the later Wittgenstein's thinking.[/quote]

Sadly, No. I browsed through certain texts last night and could not find what I was looking for. I even ploughed through the yellow books. As for the first lecture on the foundations of mathematics, well, it basically invalidated what I claimed.

The point is, there is no way to logically differentiate between different kinds of nonsense-- just as there is no sound way in differentiating between different kinds of tautologies. That is, if tautologies have no proof or disproof, then there is no means for comparing one against another and recognizing a hierarchy. However, he does say "What can be said at all can be said clearly" and it is in this sense that his nonsense [the TLP] is clearly stated nonsense (tautologies).

Quote:
> may say of something I hear, that seems utterly unsupportable to me, that it is nonsense and mean by this that it is just so obviously wrong no one in his or her right mind could be expected to accept it. This pejorative sense of "nonsense" is often confused with, say, a claim that something someone has said is simply unintelligible, i.e., that it may look superficially as though one can make head or tail of it but, really, on closer examination one will see that we cannot. It is simply "non-sense" as in lacking in any genuine meaning.

This sounds like you are either speaking of false truth values or negative facts, and using the word non-sense to refer to those concepts. But surely the word non-sense does not refer to concepts.

Quote:
> And then there is the nonsense of doggerel and the like. Perhaps Lewis Carroll's jabberwocky poem would be an ideal case in point. Think of a line like "T'was brillig in the slithy tove" and so forth. Here there is something else going on, i.e., the use of words or sounds that recall to mind words with real meanings for us in a combination that suggests a picture designed to evoke a particular response in reader or hearer. Here a swampy habitat, vaguely menacing, comes to mind, especially when heard as part of the larger poem which proceeds with such "imagery" to build the ominous picture. Certainly and in a literal sense, such words, too, are nonsense, but they do have some kind of sense attached to them by dint of their evocative effects and they get these because they both sound like real words and play the role those real words, which do have sense, might play. Compare: "T'was brilliant in the slimy grove". Note how "slithy", p erhaps replacing "slimy", evokes something!
menacing as in the slithering of a snake.

One could argue that Carroll was inventing new words. Sure, no Shakespeare. One could more easily say that those were just not sentences than they were tautological or contradictory. And as for nonsense, "red arrived tomorrow" is pure nonsense because it lacks a sense. One could not understand it even if one tried.

Maybe this is like Fermat's last theorem?

Quote:
> Moreover, the words in the Lewis Carroll line have the organization, the seeming grammar, of the real words. A set of words like "brilliant the t'was grove in slimy" would seem to be more nonsensical than "T'was brillig in the slithy tove" because the words in the latter group not only evoke real words with sense in our language but also seem to follow the grammatical form of those words, while the latter even fail to do that.

Consider how Wittgenstein uses the words beautiful and good and how the word nonsense is akin to those. In culture and Value, Wittgenstein remarks"

If someone says, let's suppose, "A's eyes have a more beautiful _expression_ than B's", then I should say he is certainly not using the word "beautiful" to mean what is common to everything we call beautiful. On the contrary, he is playing a game with the word that has quite narrow bounds...

If I say A has beautiful eyes someone may ask me: what do you find beautiful about his eyes, and perhaps I shall reply: the almond shape, long eyelashes, delicate eyelids.

It is as if, when asked why it was raining outside, Wittgenstein would say, Because it is dark and cloudy. And this is mathematical argumentation-- not experimental.

Quote:
> I'm inclined to think there may be other types, too. So I would be surprised if Wittgenstein (in his later phase at least) would have really thought that there are no distinctions to be made with regard to assertions of what counts as "nonsense", i.e., and that all instances of nonsense are just the same. Yes, all may be dismissed in some fashion or other but perhaps not to the same degree. Is even poetry that speaks of things that aren't, say 'the soaring eagle of my heart', be dismissed as merely nonsense because hearts really don't leave our bodies and soar above us in the heavens as eagles do?

Again, everything that can be said can be said clearly. If we are going to speak nonsense, look not past the tautological propositions of the TLP, which are clearheaded beyond most things written. W remarked, see C&V, that a philosophical work could be composed entirely of jokes-- ala, contradictions, irony, humor. Everything in the TLP is but the opposite of that- tautological, grammatically true, serious.

Quote:
> Should assertions of what is good or beautiful be similarly dismissed as nonsense, as some logical positivists (active during Wittgenstein's earlier years) wanted to say? And yet the later Wittgenstein was very much concerned, I think, to show us why such logical positivist notions of nonsense could not be simply taken as such, even though the Wittgenstein of the Tractatus made a point of proudly, apparently, calling the work he had done in that book nonsense at the end -- but wasn't it a good "nonsense" (or else why write and publish such a book)? And if there is good nonsense is there not also bad nonsense (that's the point, after all, in calling some things "nonsense") in which case isn't that, in itself an important distinction between types of nonsense?

Why differentiate between good and bad nonsense? Is the Bible bad nonsense? Supposedly God created everything that is the case in 6 days, and supposedly His days are not the same as ours, and no man knows how long one of God's days are. Tautological indeed. Clear? Well, I guess W has numerous remarks on the Gospels in C&V.

As for the positivists-- why mention them? I think most people know how wrong headed their half-reading of the TLP is, especially in light of the New Wittgenstein (realist) readings.

Quote:
> Yes, sometimes a tautology must seem quite pointless and so be nonsense in an important sense. More to the point, if one wants to say that what has sense has it because it carries information about the world, then, on at least one level of consideration, a tautology would not qualify. Yet aren't tautologies, too, information about the world, i.e., how we or the appropriate language users deploy a particular term (X is equivalent to Y)? Sometimes don't we need to know meanings, too? And not just because we may not know quite how to use a word but, perhaps, because we may not see that some uses are pre-ordained by the word itself?

When the theist says, God is, and the atheist says, God isn't; they are both at the limits of language-- contradictions and tautologies. So, yes, tautologies are nonsense and also, to some people, quite important. For they mark off the limits of our language. So too could contradictions. And, again, any fact could be otherwise and everything else remain the same.

Quote:
> Sean is interested in the idea that a bachelor is an unmarried male (or man) may not be a real tautology and, of course, it is and it isn't. It depends on when and how we are using the term. I disagree with Sean's assertion that Tiger Woods, who is currently married with children, could be called a bachelor though I agree that 1) he might think of himself that way, 2) carry on in that fashion (maintaining a "bachelor pad", picking up women and sleeping with them, etc., and 3) that the term "bachelor" could be stretched to apply to a lifestyle as well as to one's legal status under a certain system of laws and institutional norms.

This gets into mathematical argumentation and that all the propositions of mathematics are tautological, as per the TLP. See the Lecture on Philosophy-- mathematical argumentation is my new investigation in Wittgenstein readings. I made other remarks in the last post, but I am unsure whether to place this definition as mathematical. As for now, it lacks a context- namely a question.

Quote:
> I don't see how you arrive at this. "The world is everything that is the case" has the look of a stipulation, a statement of meaning, not a tautology in the sense I have described it above (the form of a claim). That is, sometimes it's useful to explore a meaning and not a form and, in the above, Wittgenstein chose to commence the Tractatus with a statement which, on examination, could withstand challenge because of its stipulative quality, albeit a stipulation that reflects actual usage (i.e., the language community stipulates it, not Wittgenstein alone, he is merely making explicit what is already found in the use).

The world is a tautology, the statement, The world is everything that is the case, is akin to saying, Bachelors are unmarried men. He has defined the world as composed of cases. This definition is important because it allows for a truth table to be possible, not in a book, but in a life. And if the world is all Ts, or everything that is the case, well doubting or having faith in the world is quite senseless. Having the world as all Fs doesn't change anything about these being cases.

Quote:
> But is the result the claim that the world is, therefore, not to be doubted? Whatever is the case will be the case, of course, but what has that to do with the nature of what is the case? One might still decide that the world is illusion (because everything that is the case is illusory) and so no gain is made against a claim of solipsism.

If the theist and atheist coincide, then the meeker solipsists and realist coincide just the same. This would be the end of dualism. This would be the end of philosophical misunderstandings. It makes no sense to speak of knowledge where we could not speak of doubt. I know not how to doubt or know tautologies or contradictions. Or, at the least, it would be meaningless. It is akin to doubting or knowing 2+2=4. Or that I am I.

Quote:
> > 'Whereof one cannot speak, Thereof one must be silent' is again tautological.
> >
>
> Yes and no. I agree it has a tautological aspect but it also has an important prescriptive aspect here, i.e., it is a kind of recommendation. And in that it goes beyond its tautological form. Is it nonsense? Yes in one sense but no in another which takes us back to the question of whether there are types of nonsense and whether Wittgenstein, at least in his later phase, would have agreed that there are.

Well, W does say that every description can be construed as an instruction. And since I am failing miserably at stealing a fine quote for you, might you be able to show me his remarks on different kinds of nonsense from the latter years?

Regards,
College Dropout John O'Connor
--
He lived a wonderful life.
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2.2.

Re: [C] Does The Tractatus Invalidate Itself?

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 9:16 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "College Dropout John O'Connor" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> [quote title=SWMirsky wrote on Thu, 18 February 2010 14:25
>
> Have you a link or direct quotation for this statement?

<snip>

>
> Sadly, No. I browsed through certain texts last night and could not find what I was looking for. I even ploughed through the yellow books. As for the first lecture on the foundations of mathematics, well, it basically invalidated what I claimed.
>
> The point is, there is no way to logically differentiate between different kinds of nonsense-- just as there is no sound way in differentiating between different kinds of tautologies. That is, if tautologies have no proof or disproof, then there is no means for comparing one against another and recognizing a hierarchy. However, he does say "What can be said at all can be said clearly" and it is in this sense that his nonsense [the TLP] is clearly stated nonsense (tautologies).
>
>

I can agree that we cannot use standard logic in order to differentiate different kinds of nonsense since they would all seem to be outside logic by dint of being nonsense. But I would disagree if you still maintain there aren't different kinds of nonsense. Nor can I imagine the later Wittgenstein thinking that since his idea of words having ranges of uses, depending on context, alone would seem to militate against that.

>
> Quote:
> > may say of something I hear, that seems utterly unsupportable to me, that it is nonsense and mean by this that it is just so obviously wrong no one in his or her right mind could be expected to accept it. This pejorative sense of "nonsense" is often confused with, say, a claim that something someone has said is simply unintelligible, i.e., that it may look superficially as though one can make head or tail of it but, really, on closer examination one will see that we cannot. It is simply "non-sense" as in lacking in any genuine meaning.
>

>
> This sounds like you are either speaking of false truth values or negative facts, and using the word non-sense to refer to those concepts. But surely the word non-sense does not refer to concepts.
>

I would say it depends on what we mean by "nonsense".

>
>
> Quote:
> > And then there is the nonsense of doggerel and the like. Perhaps Lewis Carroll's jabberwocky poem would be an ideal case in point. Think of a line like "T'was brillig, and the slithy toves" and so forth.

<snip>


> One could argue that Carroll was inventing new words. Sure, no Shakespeare. One could more easily say that those were just not sentences than they were tautological or contradictory. And as for nonsense, "red arrived tomorrow" is pure nonsense because it lacks a sense. One could not understand it even if one tried.
>
> Maybe this is like Fermat's last theorem?
>

Maybe. Was Carroll inventing new words or playing with sounds to create the impression of words and, thereby, a certain kind of picture, a mood, etc.?

>
>
> Quote:
> > Moreover, the words in the Lewis Carroll line have the organization, the seeming grammar, of the real words. A set of words like "brilliant the t'was grove in slimy" would seem to be more nonsensical than "T'was brillig in the slithy tove" because the words in the latter group not only evoke real words with sense in our language but also seem to follow the grammatical form of those words, while the latter even fail to do that.
>

> Consider how Wittgenstein uses the words beautiful and good and how the word nonsense is akin to those. In culture and Value, Wittgenstein remarks"
>
> If someone says, let's suppose, "A's eyes have a more beautiful _expression_ than B's", then I should say he is certainly not using the word "beautiful" to mean what is common to everything we call beautiful. On the contrary, he is playing a game with the word that has quite narrow bounds...
>
> If I say A has beautiful eyes someone may ask me: what do you find beautiful about his eyes, and perhaps I shall reply: the almond shape, long eyelashes, delicate eyelids.
>

> It is as if, when asked why it was raining outside, Wittgenstein would say, Because it is dark and cloudy. And this is mathematical argumentation-- not experimental.
>

I don't quite get this. But certainly Wittgenstein did point out that words were dependent on the particular things we did with them, the language games they were deployed in, for their meanings.

>
>
> Quote:
> > I'm inclined to think there may be other types, too. So I would be surprised if Wittgenstein (in his later phase at least) would have really thought that there are no distinctions to be made with regard to assertions of what counts as "nonsense", i.e., and that all instances of nonsense are just the same. Yes, all may be dismissed in some fashion or other but perhaps not to the same degree. Is even poetry that speaks of things that aren't, say 'the soaring eagle of my heart', be dismissed as merely nonsense because hearts really don't leave our bodies and soar above us in the heavens as eagles do?
>

> Again, everything that can be said can be said clearly. If we are going to speak nonsense, look not past the tautological propositions > of the TLP, which are clearheaded beyond most things written.

I'm not so sure of that!

> W remarked, see C&V, that a philosophical work could be composed entirely of jokes-- ala, contradictions, irony, humor. Everything in the TLP is but the opposite of that- tautological, grammatically true, serious.
>

> Quote:
> > Should assertions of what is good or beautiful be similarly dismissed as nonsense, as some logical positivists (active during Wittgenstein's earlier years) wanted to say?

<snip>

> Why differentiate between good and bad nonsense? Is the Bible bad nonsense? Supposedly God created everything that is the case in 6 days, and supposedly His days are not the same as ours, and no man knows how long one of God's days are. Tautological indeed. Clear? Well, I guess W has numerous remarks on the Gospels in C&V.
>

I just think it's manifestly true that sometimes nonsense has a role and then, if deployed in its proper game, there is nothing wrong with it, nothing bad in which case it's good (in that it serves a purpose we wish to serve by communicating in language).

> As for the positivists-- why mention them? I think most people know how wrong headed their half-reading of the TLP is, especially in light of the New Wittgenstein (realist) readings.
>

For perspective only.

>
>
> Quote:
> > Yes, sometimes a tautology must seem quite pointless and so be nonsense in an important sense. More to the point, if one wants to say that what has sense has it because it carries information about the world, then, on at least one level of consideration, a tautology would not qualify. Yet aren't tautologies, too, information about the world, i.e., how we or the appropriate language users deploy a particular term (X is equivalent to Y)? Sometimes don't we need to know meanings, too? And not just because we may not know quite how to use a word but, perhaps, because we may not see that some uses are pre-ordained by the word itself?
>

> When the theist says, God is, and the atheist says, God isn't; they are both at the limits of language-- contradictions and tautologies. So, yes, tautologies are nonsense and also, to some people, quite important. For they mark off the limits of our language. So too could contradictions. And, again, any fact could be otherwise and everything else remain the same.
>

Yes, in a certain sense it makes no more sense to affirm God than to deny God.

>
>
> Quote:
> > Sean is interested in the idea that a bachelor is an unmarried male (or man) may not be a real tautology and, of course, it is and it isn't. It depends on when and how we are using the term. I disagree with Sean's assertion that Tiger Woods, who is currently married with children, could be called a bachelor though I agree that 1) he might think of himself that way, 2) carry on in that fashion (maintaining a "bachelor pad", picking up women and sleeping with them, etc., and 3) that the term "bachelor" could be stretched to apply to a lifestyle as well as to one's legal status under a certain system of laws and institutional norms.
>

> This gets into mathematical argumentation and that all the propositions of mathematics are tautological, as per the TLP. See the Lecture on Philosophy-- mathematical argumentation is my new investigation in Wittgenstein readings. I made other remarks in the last post, but I am unsure whether to place this definition as mathematical. As for now, it lacks a context- namely a question.
>
>

I was just pointing out that we can use "bachelor" in a variety of ways and often do, making the tautology aspect a function of some ways of using the term but not others.

>
> Quote:
> > I don't see how you arrive at this. "The world is everything that is the case" has the look of a stipulation, a statement of meaning, not a tautology in the sense I have described it above (the form of a claim). That is, sometimes it's useful to explore a meaning and not a form and, in the above, Wittgenstein chose to commence the Tractatus with a statement which, on examination, could withstand challenge because of its stipulative quality, albeit a stipulation that reflects actual usage (i.e., the language community stipulates it, not Wittgenstein alone, he is merely making explicit what is already found in the use).
>

> The world is a tautology, the statement, The world is everything that is the case, is akin to saying, Bachelors are unmarried men.

Ah, so a definition and, in the context of the TLP a stipulative one.

> He has defined the world as composed of cases. This definition is important because it allows for a truth table to be possible, not in a book, but in a life. And if the world is all Ts, or everything that is the case, well doubting or having faith in the world is quite senseless. Having the world as all Fs doesn't change anything about these being cases.
>

> Quote:
> > But is the result the claim that the world is, therefore, not to be doubted? Whatever is the case will be the case, of course, but what has that to do with the nature of what is the case? One might still decide that the world is illusion (because everything that is the case is illusory) and so no gain is made against a claim of solipsism.
>

> If the theist and atheist coincide, then the meeker solipsists and realist coincide just the same. This would be the end of dualism. This would be the end of philosophical misunderstandings. It makes no sense to speak of knowledge where we could not speak of doubt. I know not how to doubt or know tautologies or contradictions. Or, at the least, it would be meaningless. It is akin to doubting or knowing 2+2=4. Or that I am I.
>

Still the world could be everything that is the case and yet we may not understand its nature, i.e., it may be all a single entity's dream after all and thus solipsism would be true. Of course the later Wittgenstein's point against solipsism is that you cannot really talk like that (language being of public provenance after all) so formulating claims of solipsism is ultimately unintelligible (nonsense).

>
>
> Quote:
> > > 'Whereof one cannot speak, Thereof one must be silent' is again tautological.
> > >

> > Yes and no. I agree it has a tautological aspect but it also has an important prescriptive aspect here, i.e., it is a kind of recommendation. And in that it goes beyond its tautological form. Is it nonsense? Yes in one sense but no in another which takes us back to the question of whether there are types of nonsense and whether Wittgenstein, at least in his later phase, would have agreed that there are.
>

> Well, W does say that every description can be construed as an instruction. And since I am failing miserably at stealing a fine quote for you, might you be able to show me his remarks on different kinds of nonsense from the latter years?
>
> Regards,
> College Dropout John O'Connor
> --
> He lived a wonderful life.
> ==========================================

Off hand I cannot think of any. Perhaps someone who is more conversant than me with chapter and verse these days can suggest something though. My view is as I've stated it though: I think the gist of the later Wittgenstein's thinking implies different kinds of nonsense even if, at one point in his earlier career, he may have seemed to be saying otherwise.

SWM

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3.1.

Re: Dennett's paradigm shiftiness--Reply to Stuart

Posted by: "gabuddabout" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 12:04 pm (PST)





--- In WittrsAMR@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "gabuddabout" <wittrsamr@> wrote:
>
>
> <SWM>
>
>
> > New = Budd
> >
> > Hope it's not too confusing!
> >
> <snip>
>
> > All parallel processing can be implemented on a serial computer. There simply is nothing more by way of computation that can be done in parallel that can't be done serially.
> >
>
>
> This misses the point again.

No it doesn't. It targets your point that parallel processing offers us something more COMPUTATIONALLY than serial computing. That is decidedly false and Searle's CR is equivalent to a UTM and ALL possible parallel processing DEFINED IN COMPUTATIONAL TERMS is also equivalent to what can be done serially with a UTM.

Also, I am not missing your point when you make a different one. You assimilate parallel processing in your lexicon to physical processes. The claim is vacuous actually but you don't know it. To the extent it is about computation it is vacuous. To the extent it is about physical processes, Searle doesn't disagree with your change of topic.

No one is ever going to find that some process or other is intrinsically computational.

And on the other hand, everything under the sun can be given a computational description.

So one can say that the stomach does information processing.

The upshot of so saying is that it makes it difficult to distinguish the truly mental from nonmental.

And this is the upshot of the systems reply as a reply to Searle's CRA.

If, on another hand (I'm going to be Jack Handy today!), one wanted to say of A (AS IN a TYPE OF) systems reply that it amounted to merely the claim that nonconscious physical processes cause consciousness, then one wouldn't be saying anything contradicting Searle's biological naturalism.

Immediately below one can see what a mess Stuart creates by dipping back and forth between comments on computation and comments on physical processes simpliciter. Just look:

Stuart writes:

"The issue is that, if consciousness is a certain kind of process-based system, then you need to have all the parts in place, even if they all consist of different computational processes doing different things and it takes a parallel platform to do this."

Notice the "even if" above. As already explained, everything can be given a computational description. Therefore, while the "even if" looks like it's doing some work above, we know independently that it is an idle phrase given the vacuity of claiming that some physical process is intrinsically computational.

The same waffling happens immediately after the above quote:

Stuart writes:

"That one can do each of the processes in a serial way, too, isn't the issue because one can't do it all in the way that's required, i.e., by running a sufficiently complex system with lots of things interacting simultaneously, in parallel, using a serial platform. (PJ has argued that a really, really, really, really, etc., fast system could do what a parallel system could do even if we have no such system or the possibility of building one and I am agnostic on that."

Stuart is agnostic because he really doesn't understand the following:

1. The CR is a UTM.

2. All parallel processing can be done on a UTM.

3. All parallel processing is different from serial processing only in name (computationally) or not. If not, the only extra here is in noncomputational terms.

So Stuart really has no beef with Searle's biological naturalism because in Stuart's lexicon, parallel processing simply means the same thing as what the brain does if the brain is described as a parallel processor.

Searle's point is that this claim is vacuous. Anything under the sun can be given a computational description, and it doesn't matter (COMPUTATIONALLY SPEAKING) that one thing is a serial processor and another a parallel processor.

Stuart is right, however, to see that parallel processing sounds like a better candidate for mirroring what the brain does because such processing ____sounds____ a bit more realistic as a physical system than serial processing happening with software running on hardware, what I abbreviate by S/H (SH for short).

The same confusion simply happens over and over with Stuart, as one can see with what he immediately says after the above quote:

Stuart writes:

"It may, indeed, be possible to achieve synthetic consciousness on a serial processor running at super-duper speed. But so what? The issue is what does it take to do it in the real world and, for that, parallel processors are a way more realistic option.)"

Now, I'm coming to believe that Stuart simply is playing a game where he doesn't care that he speaks as sloppily as he does. The options are that he really is sloppy or that he doesn't care because the point is to see who can correct him best. Notice that the way he phrases things, he allows for it to be possible to create consciousness via serial computation. He distinguishes the type of consciousness by saying "synthetic consciousness" by which he means AI, which, don't ya know, Searle allows is a possibility without thinking that SH is a coherent candidate.

Often, Stuart goes straight from Searle's denial that SH is a coherent candidate for causing semantics or consciousness to the claim that Searle must have some nonprocess-based conception of consciousness.

Now, notice that Stuart thinks parallel processing more realistic as a way of thinking how the brain works.

That can only be because he likens parallel processing more to physics compared to serial processing.

He shifts back and forth from serial processing to parallel processing because he already knows that both are equal in computational terms while only one looks more like what the brain may be doing.

But Searle's point is that one doesn't discover information processing in the physics.

Similarly, Dennett uses the intentional stance to describe levels of intentionality below the level at which we have it until the bottom level is all about physical processes without intentionality at all.

He calls it recursaive decomposition.

Searle's naturalism is simply more brutal. It is a humunculus fallacy to suppose levels of intentionality other than the conscious level--unless one is so eliminative that they aren't even going to try for a theory of semantics, effectively denyiong the second premise that minds have semantic contents. Let Dennett deny this and get away with it. It is still bad philosphy no matter how inspired by Wittgenstein.

Brains cause consciousness by way of physical processes which are not computational processes. Let Hacker call this proposition nonsense. Who cares what he thinks?

Notice how Stuart will continually invoke the notion of computation as a causal notion when describing Dennett's position--as if Searle's position isn't about nonconscious processes brutally causing consciousness. So Stuart is constantly trying to see Searle's position as inconsistent with a "process-based" view of consciousness and he does this simply by conflating computational processes with physical ones. So, if one denies the first, one eo ipso denies the second. This doesn't follow. Then Stuart invokes our ignorance. I'll cut to the chase:

The options are two (main) species of functionalism:

1. Functionalism with an eliminative thrust (I.e., eliminative materialism) is espoused by Dennett/Kim wherein we "dissolve" a la Wittgenstein/Hacker the question of how the brain causes semantics/consciousness (this is a denial of the second premise wherein it is stated that minds have semantic contents--but many aren't that quick to notice.. And Dennett will waffle at will, sometimes trying to say true things. The above is a form of conceptual dualism whereby one is an eliminativist because one finds that the alternative is a nonphysical theory of mind, even though they espouse the doctine only if they do in fact have semantics and really mean it.. Jaegwon Kim points out that one needs some form of eliminativism if we are not to have causal overdetermination infecting our theory. Eliminativism is bewitched by conceptual dualism to the point where it seems impossible to ask how the brain causes first person subjectivity.

2. Functionalism with an epiphenomenal thrust is espoused by Chalmers, who claims that there really are minds but they have no causal properties. This is in keeping with Kim's conceptual dualism even though he may not share Chalmers' epiphenomenalism.. We have our minds in the real world, but they are nonphysical and do no work for Chalmers, including helping him write a book on consciousness. All theologians are thus served notice that they have been on vacation and are entirely screwed up if they hadn't noticed the heaven that they're already in (looooong story).

Searle merely claims that both are misguided.

Stuart continually argues that Searle's critique amounts to a form of dualism while I claim that both species of functionalism noted above are mired by conceptual dualism to begin with.

Immediately after the above quote, Stuart writes:

"> If the issue were that consciousness cannot be sufficiently accounted for by describing syntactical processes at work, then introducing complexity of this type wouldn't matter, of course. But as Dennett shows, we can account for the features of mind by this kind of complexity, at least in a descriptive way (if one is prepared to give up a preconceived notion of ontological basicness re: consciousness)."

So the kind of complexity is computational. Searle just says that the thesis is vacuous. And to the extent it is not vacuous but is about physics doing the grunt work, it is in keeping with Searle. But Stuart wants to paint Searle a different color. That is because he doesn't care that he is wrong to do so or doesn't understand exactly what Searle's beef is. And he can't have it both ways.

Stuart writes:

"Whether Dennett's model is adequate for accomplishing the synthesis of a conscious entity in the real world remains an empirical question."

Excuse me while I primally scream. Okay. Much better! The empirical question is how brains do it. Computationalism is vacuous as such. It is not vacuous when one insists that by "computational complexity" they mean physical complexity. Physical complexity, of one form or another, is the right picture for both Searle and Dennett. Hacker's insistence on the meaninglessness of the statement "The brain causes consciousness" is just a residue of the epistemological criterion approach to everything wherein we follow granny's advice to first define our terms before we dub ourselves competent enough to perform meaningful speech acts. Fodor thought that we were beyond that now, joking that it is probably a leg-pull that sometimes senses are created at Oxford after the visitors leave.

Stuart continues:

"But the point is that there is nothing in principle preventing it, as long as we can fully describe consciousness this way."

There is nothing in principle which prevents fully describing anything, including ghosts. Some descriptions simply will invoke physical processes, including those which cause consciousness. It's not that Searle is denying an empirical possibility. It is a truism that some physical processes cause consciousness, Hacker decidedly notwithstanding along with those who use Wittgenstein as armor for being infected by the nonsense of science.. It is simply vacuous to describe the physical processes as intrinsically computational processes.

The upshot is that what you mean by computational complexity is simply physical complexity. And what Searle means by computation is covered by both serial a nd parallel processing.

If you insist on conflating computation with physics, then you can join Eray in critiquing a philosopher he can only misinterpret.

I'll comment some more below.

Stuart writes:

"So everything hinges on whether Dennett's account of consciousness as a certain agglomeration of features is credible.

Marsha, Marsha, Marsha! (I mean, Dennett, Dennett, ah, Parrot) The way you spell things, there's no diff. between Dennett and Searle. The way you spell things, there is. The reason for your contradiction is your conflation of physics and computation on the one hand, along with your insistence that, physically speaking, parallel processing seems more realistic as a theory of how the brain causes consciousness than serial processing. Computationally speaking, anything that can be computed in parallel can be computed in serial. Earlier you said that this misses the point. So the alternative is for you to think that there is a physical difference between the two. Well, nothing is intrinsically a computation and that is why it doesn't matter for you also to think that serial processing may also be viable.

You're just a mess. And maybe on purpose. I would like to think you know better. But assume you are really all wet in your understanding of just what functionalism may be and just what Searle's real drive is about, it's no big deal because you are just a centimeter away from saying "Oh, I've been posilutely goofy when it came to understanding Searle."

Stuart writes:

> To dispute Dennett you have to say his account doesn't fully describe all the features that must be present. Searle attempts this with his CRA but his attempt hinges on a conception of consciousness which requires it be irreducible (i.e., already assumes Dennett's model is mistaken at the outset) -- and yet even Searle doesn't stand by this with regard to brains, thereby putting him in self-contradiction.

I must assume you're all wet then, but just by that centimeter remember. Notice that the CRA derives from the CR which derives from the target article. In the target article in BBS he is showing that a serial computer (or any UTM which can serially compute anything computable in parallel!!!!) will give false positives and thus a computational theory of mind can't give necessary and sufficient conditions.

Well, that's a long way from being in contradiction with a physicalist thesis! But Stuart may just be pretending to be all wet. Or he's a centimeter away from learning something. Again, it's no biggie.

Cheers,
Budd

Ps. I snipped but will reply that our discussion six years ago was not at the Wisdom forum. It was at philosophy_and_science_of_language.

..

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3.2.

Re: Dennett's paradigm shiftiness--Reply to Stuart

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 1:04 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "gabuddabout" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> You assimilate parallel processing in your lexicon to physical
processes.
> The claim is vacuous actually but you don't know it.
> To the extent it is about computation it is vacuous.

Please elaborate on the vacuity.

> No one is ever going to find that some process or other is
intrinsically computational.
> And on the other hand, everything under the sun can be given a
computational description.

This sounds right-on to me but I can't say why. Help me get it.

> So one can say that the stomach does information processing.
> The upshot of so saying is that it makes it difficult to distinguish
the truly mental from nonmental.

Because the truly mental is...

I'll stop here though there is much more.

bruce

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3.3.

Re: Dennett's paradigm shiftiness--Reply to Stuart

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 3:27 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "gabuddabout" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

Budd is responding to Stuart. So ">>" lines are quoted from Stuart (=
SWM), and ">" lines are quoted from Budd.

>> This misses the point again.

> No it doesn't. It targets your point that parallel processing offers
> us something more COMPUTATIONALLY than serial computing.

Can you point out where Stuart said that parallel processing provides
something special, other than raw compute power. I seem to have missed
that.

> That is decidedly false and Searle's CR is equivalent to a UTM and
> ALL possible parallel processing DEFINED IN COMPUTATIONAL TERMS is
> also equivalent to what can be done serially with a UTM.

If computational AI is possible (and I don't assume it is), then
Searle's CR is equivalent to a computer so highly powered that it could
maybe have one thought every 1000 years. It is grossly underpowered
for the job. And I'm pretty sure that is what Stuart was pointing out.
That the CR is so underpowered, makes it implausible as a source of
intelligence. And since Searle's argument is at beast only an attempt
to show AI is implausible, his underpowered equipment makes the
argument very misleading.

> No one is ever going to find that some process or other is
> intrinsically computational.

This actually has no consequences, as far as I can tell. It's a side
issue.

> The upshot of so saying is that it makes it difficult to distinguish
> the truly mental from nonmental.

> And this is the upshot of the systems reply as a reply to Searle's
> CRA.

I am wondering whether you have ever read the Systems reply. It has no
such consequences, and it is actually the correct response to Searle's
bogus argument.

I'll add that I actually think Searle might be right about AI. However,
his CRA was a complete failure at showing that.

Regards,
Neil

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3.4.

Re: Dennett's paradigm shiftiness--Reply to Stuart

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Sat Feb 27, 2010 5:46 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "gabuddabout" <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
> > <snip>
> >
> > > All parallel processing can be implemented on a serial computer. There simply is nothing more by way of computation that can be done in parallel that can't be done serially.
> > >
> >
> >
> > This misses the point again.

>
> No it doesn't.

Yes it does.

> It targets your point that parallel processing offers us something more COMPUTATIONALLY than serial computing.

Depends what is meant by "computationally" and "more". It seems to me you are confusing the question of the quality of the process (its nature), i.e., that it is an algorithm, with the quality of the system (consisting of many processes doing many different things). A massively parallel computational platform is still just a computer. But it has capacities that even a pretty darned fast serial machine doesn't.

The point is what is consciousness, i.e., is it a feature (or features) of a certain kind of system or is it something that cannot be reduced to that?

If it can be reduced to that in brains then at least in principle it can be in computers, too (even if there are empirical reasons for why it might not actually work -- a totally different issue than Searle's logical claim).

The thesis that a computer would have to have the same capacity(ies) as a brain to replicate consciousness is not a claim that brains have something that computers lack but that brains operate like computers in certain relevant ways and that a computer that can be brought to that level of operation, no matter how many added processors were required, would be as conscious as a brain.

But, of course, if your position is that computational processes per se are not capable of producing the features we call consciousness because, well, they aren't conscious ("nothing in the Chinese Room understands Chinese -- John Searle), then, of course, you will deny the possibility, as Searle does. But then that is dualistic, admitted or no.

> That is decidedly false and Searle's CR is equivalent to a UTM and ALL possible parallel processing DEFINED IN COMPUTATIONAL TERMS is also equivalent to what can be done serially with a UTM.
>

Searle's CR is specked as a rote responding device of such remarkable facility that it will always seem to be understanding in its replies. Aside from Dennett's point that this isn't even conceivable, we can still grant it for argument's sake. But in doing so we are left with a machine that is matching symbols to symbols with no understanding, by definition. But to if to understand is to have one of the features of consciousness then the question is what does that feature consist of? When looked at closely, it is clear it isn't just rote symbol matching according to mechanical rules. What's required is the capacity to relate one thing to many things in an ongoing cascade of connections. And that is excluded from Searle's CR. It's a bicycle that we're told can fly. But it doesn't matter what we're told. A bicycle lacks all the accouterments, the instrumentalities, needed for flying and so, no matter how many times we're told it can fly, it still can't.

> Also, I am not missing your point when you make a different one. You assimilate parallel processing in your lexicon to physical
> processes.

All computers are physical platforms and thus operate physically, i.e., have physical processes going on. Serial machines have it just as much as parallel processing machines.

> The claim is vacuous actually but you don't know it.

You just don't get it.

> To the extent it is about computation it is vacuous. To the extent it is about physical processes, Searle doesn't disagree with your change of topic.
>

So are you saying Searle agrees with Dennett's thesis that consciousness can be replicated on massively parallel processing computers then? Is THAT your position?

> No one is ever going to find that some process or other is intrinsically computational.
>

We're talking though about computational processes not what is "intrinsically computational". Everything is what it is and that is usually lots of different things. That there are computational processes going on in computers is indisputable. The issue is whether they are sufficiently like what is happening in brains to accomplish the same thing.

> And on the other hand, everything under the sun can be given a computational description.
>
> So one can say that the stomach does information processing.
>

Yes, but so what? We're talking about brains and computers.

> The upshot of so saying is that it makes it difficult to distinguish the truly mental from nonmental.
>

?

> And this is the upshot of the systems reply as a reply to Searle's CRA.
>

Dennett's response in that text I offered from Consciousness Explained, while longwinded, is effective.

> If, on another hand (I'm going to be Jack Handy today!), one wanted to say of A (AS IN a TYPE OF) systems reply that it amounted to merely the claim that nonconscious physical processes cause consciousness, then one wouldn't be saying anything contradicting Searle's biological naturalism.
>

The question is what is consciousness, what is it that we are saying is caused? If it's just certain features produced by certain kinds of process-based systems running in a certain way, then there is no grounds for eliminating computers as a possibility for doing this in principle. But, of course, that's what Searle is trying to do.

> Immediately below one can see what a mess Stuart creates by dipping back and forth between comments on computation and comments on physical processes simpliciter. Just look:
>
> Stuart writes:
>
> "The issue is that, if consciousness is a certain kind of process-based system, then you need to have all the parts in place, even if they all consist of different computational processes doing different things and it takes a parallel platform to do this."
>
>
> Notice the "even if" above. As already explained, everything can be given a computational description. Therefore, while the "even if" looks like it's doing some work above, we know independently that it is an idle phrase given the vacuity of claiming that some physical process is intrinsically computational.
>

This is an example of nonsense (alluding to a nearby discussion). No one is making any claims about anything "intrinsically computational". That's your fantasy. This is about one thing: can consciousness be produced synthetically on a computational platform or can it not?

While the question itself is empirical in nature, Searle attempts to give a logical answer in the negative. But that logical answer fails because, if consciousness is explainable as a process-based system operating in a certain way with certain capacities, then there is no reason, in principle, that a computationally based system of this type can't do it. On the other hand, if a computer can't do it because its processes aren't, themselves, conscious (as Searle tells us) then the same denial would apply to brains unless you hold a dualist position (thinking that consciousness is an ontological basic).

> The same waffling happens immediately after the above quote:
>
> Stuart writes:
>
> "That one can do each of the processes in a serial way, too, isn't the issue because one can't do it all in the way that's required, i.e., by running a sufficiently complex system with lots of things interacting simultaneously, in parallel, using a serial platform. (PJ has argued that a really, really, really, really, etc., fast system could do what a parallel system could do even if we have no such system or the possibility of building one and I am agnostic on that."
>
>
>
> Stuart is agnostic because he really doesn't understand the following:
>
> 1. The CR is a UTM.
>

Show how this is relevant.

> 2. All parallel processing can be done on a UTM.
>

So what? The issue is the process-based system, not particular processes in the system.

> 3. All parallel processing is different from serial processing only in name (computationally) or not. If not, the only extra here is in noncomputational terms.
>

Actually, on the Analytic list we read an interesting paper (I've lost the link to it unfortunately) which pointed out that parallel processing introduces more than just greater speed. By the trick of siumultaneity and interactivity, it introduces unpredictability which means that a sufficiently complex system may have the ability to program itself within certain limits in the same way brains do.

> So Stuart really has no beef with Searle's biological naturalism because in Stuart's lexicon, parallel processing simply means the same thing as what the brain does if the brain is described as a parallel processor.
>

If the brain operates as a parallel processor then Dennett is correct in which case a computational consciousness would be achievable. So why do you think Searle denies that possibility?

> Searle's point is that this claim is vacuous.

You mean if someone can build a conscious machine on Dennett's model (or even try and fail to do it) that is "vacuous"? How so?

> Anything under the sun can be given a computational description, and it doesn't matter (COMPUTATIONALLY SPEAKING) that one thing is a serial processor and another a parallel processor.
>

You are mixing the issues up again.

> Stuart is right, however, to see that parallel processing sounds like a better candidate for mirroring what the brain does because such processing ____sounds____ a bit more realistic as a physical system than serial processing happening with software running on hardware, what I abbreviate by S/H (SH for short).
>

>
> The same confusion simply happens over and over with Stuart,

One of us is clearly confused, Budd.

> as one can see with what he immediately says after the above quote:
>

> Stuart writes:
>
> "It may, indeed, be possible to achieve synthetic consciousness on a serial processor running at super-duper speed. But so what? The issue is what does it take to do it in the real world and, for that, parallel processors are a way more realistic option.)"
>

> Now, I'm coming to believe that Stuart simply is playing a game where he doesn't care that he speaks as sloppily as he does.

You're getting insulting again. I guess you can't help it but I won't keep playing with you if it gets much worse.

> The options are that he really is sloppy or that he doesn't care because the point is to see who can correct him best. Notice that the way he phrases things, he allows for it to be possible to create consciousness via serial computation. He distinguishes the type of consciousness by saying "synthetic consciousness" by which he means AI, which, don't ya know, Searle allows is a possibility without thinking that SH is a coherent candidate.
>

Searle allows "weak AI" of course but claims that isn't to produce real consciousness, only a simulation ('You can simulate a hurricane on a computer,' he says, 'but it won't make you wet.')

Searle also allows that it may be possible to build a machine that replicates what brains do but, he insists, this will not be done using computation such as is run on computers because of what his CR demonstrates. But, of course, all it demonstrates is that you can't build a bicycle and expect it to fly.

> Often, Stuart goes straight from Searle's denial that SH is a coherent candidate for causing semantics or consciousness to the claim that Searle must have some nonprocess-based conception of consciousness.
>

See my past arguments about the only way the CRA conclusion can be drawn.

> Now, notice that Stuart thinks parallel processing more realistic as a way of thinking how the brain works.
>
> That can only be because he likens parallel processing more to physics compared to serial processing.
>

Huh?

> He shifts back and forth from serial processing to parallel processing because he already knows that both are equal in computational terms while only one looks more like what the brain may be doing.
>

I don't shift at all. I am talking about a process-based system that requires a parallel processing platform, at least in real time (not superduper time). Nowhere have I ever suggested that a serial processor performing one process after another sequentially could be expected to replicate what brains can do in real time.

> But Searle's point is that one doesn't discover information processing in the physics.
>

And Searle's point is irrelevant to the issue of what one can do with computers and computational processes running on them.

> Similarly, Dennett uses the intentional stance to describe levels of intentionality below the level at which we have it until the bottom level is all about physical processes without intentionality at all.
>
> He calls it recursaive decomposition.
>
> Searle's naturalism is simply more brutal.

It's more confused on this issue of ontological basicness. That is, it's dualistic while imagining it isn't.

> It is a humunculus fallacy to suppose levels of intentionality other than the conscious level--unless one is so eliminative that they aren't even going to try for a theory of semantics, effectively denyiong the second premise that minds have semantic contents. Let Dennett deny this and get away with it. It is still bad philosphy no matter how inspired by Wittgenstein.
>

Dennett doesn't deny semantics. That is simply absurd and another example of your missing the point. Moreover you don't understand the homunculus issue, based on what you have written above. It is about little men inside of little men inside of little men, etc., etc. Dennett's proposal, on the other hand, is that what we call "consciousness" occurs on a continuum and that there are lower levels of it which become increasingly more complex and more recognizable as what we call "consciousness" the higher up in the hierarchy of living organisms we go.

> Brains cause consciousness by way of physical processes which are not computational processes. Let Hacker call this proposition nonsense. Who cares what he thinks?
>

Now there's a great argument. Well who cares what Searle thinks? Who cares what you think? Don't you think you can do better than that in referencing Hacker?

> Notice how Stuart will continually invoke the notion of computation as a causal notion when describing Dennett's position--as if Searle's position isn't about nonconscious processes brutally causing consciousness.

Searle's position is self-contradictory.

> So Stuart is constantly trying to see Searle's position as inconsistent with a "process-based" view of consciousness and he does this simply by conflating computational processes with physical ones.

If the issue is about processes and what they can do, then it is no argument against computational consciousness to say computational processes can't succeed at this because they aren't conscious (don't understand Chinese). Well of course they aren't. That's just the point!

> So, if one denies the first, one eo ipso denies the second. This doesn't follow. Then Stuart invokes our ignorance. I'll cut to the chase:
>

I invoke your ignorance? How so? Are you saying I'm not clearly stating my position? I'm trying to pull the wool over your eyes? I'm claiming that our ignorance of how consciousness really works supports my thesis? WHAT ARE YOU TRYING TO SAY?

> The options are two (main) species of functionalism:
>
> 1. Functionalism with an eliminative thrust (I.e., eliminative materialism) is espoused by Dennett/Kim wherein we "dissolve" a la Wittgenstein/Hacker the question of how the brain causes semantics/consciousness (this is a denial of the second premise wherein it is stated that minds have semantic contents--but many
> aren't that quick to notice..

You are badly mistaken. No one is denying semantic contents. The issue is what does this content consist of?

> And Dennett will waffle at will,

Everyone waffles but you and Searle, eh? Poor Searle, to be stuck with such a defense of his position on this list.

> sometimes trying to say true things. The above is a form of conceptual dualism whereby one is an eliminativist because one finds that the alternative is a nonphysical theory of mind, even though they espouse the doctine only if they do in fact have semantics and
> really mean it..

This is barely coherent. What is "conceptual dualism" and how does it fit in with other notions of dualism? And what is it about Dennett's claims that qualifies it to be called "conceptual dualism"?

> Jaegwon Kim points out that one needs some form of eliminativism if we are not to have causal overdetermination infecting our theory. Eliminativism is bewitched by conceptual dualism to the point where it seems impossible to ask how the brain causes first person subjectivity.
>

What is "conceptual dualism", etc., etc.?

> 2. Functionalism with an epiphenomenal thrust is espoused by Chalmers, who claims that there really are minds but they have no causal properties. This is in keeping with Kim's conceptual dualism even though he may not share Chalmers' epiphenomenalism.. We have our minds in the real world, but they are nonphysical and do no work for Chalmers, including helping him write a book on consciousness. All theologians are thus served notice that they have been on vacation and are entirely screwed up if they hadn't noticed the heaven that they're already in (looooong story).
>

What has THIS to do with the dispute over Searle's CRA?

> Searle merely claims that both are misguided.
>

But what if his CRA is misguided? Who cares what he "claims"? Make the case for the claim or not.

> Stuart continually argues that Searle's critique amounts to a form of dualism while I claim that both species of functionalism noted above are mired by conceptual dualism to begin with.
>

What is "conceptual dualism", etc., etc.?

>
> Immediately after the above quote, Stuart writes:
>
> "> If the issue were that consciousness cannot be sufficiently accounted for by describing syntactical processes at work, then introducing complexity of this type wouldn't matter, of course. But as Dennett shows, we can account for the features of mind by this kind of complexity, at least in a descriptive way (if one is prepared to give up a preconceived notion of ontological basicness re: consciousness)."
>
>
> So the kind of complexity is computational. Searle just says that the thesis is vacuous.

That's not an argument and, as I pointed out above, what about it is "vacuous"?

> And to the extent it is not vacuous but is about physics doing the grunt work, it is in keeping with Searle.

Then how is it that Searle thinks he is denying Dennett and Dennett thinks he is denying Searle? Have you some revelation that they are really on the same side and, since you seem to be claiming you do, howcome Searle hasn't seen it?

> But Stuart wants to paint Searle a different color. That is because he doesn't care that he is wrong to do so or doesn't understand exactly what Searle's beef is. And he can't have it both ways.
>

What if Stuart isn't wrong to do so though?

>
>
> Stuart writes:
>
> "Whether Dennett's model is adequate for accomplishing the synthesis of a conscious entity in the real world remains an empirical question."
>
>
> Excuse me while I primally scream. Okay. Much better! The empirical question is how brains do it. Computationalism is vacuous as such.

So you assert but I've already shown above that it is "vacuous" of you to argue by simply asserting that something someone else says is "vacuous". Show what you mean, don't just assert.

> It is not vacuous when one insists that by "computational complexity" they mean physical complexity.

We don't. We mean system complexity. ALL COMPUTATIONAL PROCESSES REQUIRE A PHYSICAL PLATFORM. You cannot do anything in the world unless some physical activity is happening. You cannot even think about doing anything if your brain isn't working properly and so doing what it has to do to produce that thought. So physicality is a given, unless and until you start imagining mind as an ontological basic.

> Physical complexity, of one form or another, is the right picture for both Searle and Dennett.

Indeed. But Searle is wrong in his CRA.

(This is way too long, Budd, so I'll skip your Hacker stuff from here on unless it is relevant to the CRA dispute.)

<snip>

> Stuart continues:
>
> "But the point is that there is nothing in principle preventing it, as long as we can fully describe consciousness this way."
>
>
> There is nothing in principle which prevents fully describing anything, including ghosts.

You misunderstand what I am saying with "fully describe". The issue is to describe something that leaves nothing out. All manner of describing is always possible but there is no way to "fully describe" ghosts in this sense unless you are delimiting the description in some way (e.g., what author X says of ghosts). On the other hand, if we can provide a computational type description of all the features we associate with what we mean by "consciousness" then that description is theoretically viable whether true or not.

> Some descriptions simply will invoke physical processes, including those which cause consciousness. It's not that Searle is denying an > empirical possibility.

He most certainly is. See the CRA. Its conclusion is that computational consciousness isn't possible.

> It is a truism that some physical processes cause consciousness, Hacker decidedly notwithstanding along with those who use Wittgenstein as armor for being infected by the nonsense of science.. It is simply vacuous to describe the physical processes as intrinsically computational processes.
>

No one is saying computational processes are "intrinsically computational" whatever THAT means. The issue is what computational processes, which manifestly exist, can do.

> The upshot is that what you mean by computational complexity is simply physical complexity.

No, I mean system complexity.

> And what Searle means by computation is covered by both serial a nd parallel processing.
>

Then why does he think he is denying what Dennett asserts as his thesis for how consciousness happens? Poor Searle, he doesn't even know he is in agreement with Dennett on your view!

> If you insist on conflating computation with physics, then you can join Eray in critiquing a philosopher he can only misinterpret.
>

Not worthy of a reply!

> I'll comment some more below.
>
>

More of the same repetitive stuff I suppose?

>
> Stuart writes:
>
>
> "So everything hinges on whether Dennett's account of consciousness as a certain agglomeration of features is credible.
>
>
> Marsha, Marsha, Marsha! (I mean, Dennett, Dennett, ah, Parrot) The way you spell things, there's no diff. between Dennett and Searle. The way you spell things, there is.

Have you informed Searle yet?

> The reason for your contradiction is your conflation of physics and computation on the one hand,

All computational processes (algorithms running on computer) are physical. Pretending otherwise is what's strange.

> along with your insistence that, physically speaking, parallel processing seems more realistic as a theory of how the brain causes consciousness than serial processing. Computationally speaking,
> anything that can be computed in parallel can be computed in serial.

More repetition. See my replies above.

> Earlier you said that this misses the point. So the alternative is for you to think that there is a physical difference between the two. Well, nothing is intrinsically a computation and that is why it doesn't matter for you also to think that serial processing may also be viable.
>

No one is talking about being "intrinsically a computation". What IS your problem?

> You're just a mess.

You are annoying me again, Budd.

> And maybe on purpose. I would like to think you know better. But assume you are really all wet in your understanding of just what functionalism may be and just what Searle's real drive is about, it's no big deal because you are just a centimeter away from saying "Oh, I've been posilutely goofy when it came to understanding Searle."
>

> Stuart writes:
>
> > To dispute Dennett you have to say his account doesn't fully describe all the features that must be present. Searle attempts this with his CRA but his attempt hinges on a conception of consciousness which requires it be irreducible (i.e., already assumes Dennett's model is mistaken at the outset) -- and yet even Searle doesn't stand by this with regard to brains, thereby putting him in self-contradiction.
>
>
> I must assume you're all wet then,

I see you still don't understand. All right, I didn't really think you would as you haven't over the past five lists. Why expect miracles now?

> but just by that centimeter remember. Notice that the CRA derives from the CR which derives from the target article. In the target article in BBS he is showing that a serial computer (or any UTM which can serially compute anything computable in parallel!!!!) will give false positives and thus a computational theory of mind can't give necessary and sufficient conditions.
>

His argument, the CRA, is not about whether the Turing Test is a reliable test of consciousness but about whethercomputers can be deemed to be conscious even if they pass it.

> Well, that's a long way from being in contradiction with a physicalist thesis! But Stuart may just be pretending to be all wet. Or he's a centimeter away from learning something. Again, it's no biggie.
>
> Cheers,
> Budd
>
> Ps. I snipped but will reply that our discussion six years ago was not at the Wisdom forum. It was at philosophy_and_science_of_language.
>
>

Oh, right. I met the founder of that list on the Wisdom Forum. There have been so many and most really pretty poor I'm afraid. Anyway, it would be better in future, Budd, if you will not repeat so much. These posts can become long without endlessly making the same points over and over again. Oh and try to keep your little insults to a minimum as I am quickly remembering why I gave up even wanting to respond to you.

SWM

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