[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 144

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 17 Feb 2010 10:56:04 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (7 Messages)

Messages

1.1.

Re: Dennett's paradigm shift.

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Feb 16, 2010 5:29 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@...> wrote:

>
> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
> > We stop looking for mind as entity
>
> This is found in William James 100 yrs ago. But for him, and others, a
> non-entity is not physical. And since the brain is an entity, Dennett
> takes a step backwards from James
>

Why? What makes you say THAT? Again the claim that the mind just is the brain is not a claim that the mind is a physical thing but a feature (or features) of a physical thing, in this case a physical process occurring in some brains at some times. Why is this such a difficult concept to grasp?

> > easily explainable as a complex set of brain functionalities,
> > accomplished by a process-based system running in brains.
>
> What's explained? Philosophy is not asking for the physiological
> correlate, rather they are asking how can I conceive of the relationship
> between the physiology and the experience. Tell me that.
>

How we get so-called mental events in a physical milieu when what we associate with the physical, at its most basic level, lacks a mental dimension (the physical constituents of matter at all levels show no evidence of being conscious, having minds).

> > It's just that now we can see how this can be accounted
> > for in terms of physical processes going on in brains.
>
> How is "this", the experience accounted for. This physical process could
> easily go on without any mental life.
>

Can the mental life easily go on (or go on at all) without the physical process? If it can and you can make a case for it then you are a better dualist than any I know, Gungha Din!

> > The idea is not to deny "subjective experience"
> > but to explain it in a way that makes it conceivable as an
> > outcome of physical processes.
>
> Right! So you imagine subjective experience is produced in the brain?

Kill the brain and what happens to subjective experience? Do you think the answer to that question, which if you are a normal modern person with contemporary knowledge of the world will be "it goes away", is to "imagine" something? Even religionists agree it "goes away" though they think (or certainly some religions teach) that it goes away AS AN entity, suddenly cut loose from its moorings, goes away. Others of us, though, who see no reason to conceive of consciousness as such an entity, mean something else by "goes away", of course. So the question is what happens to the mind without the brain. And if it "goes away" as a wheel stops turning rather than as if the wheel suddenly cuts loose its turning and the turning flies off into another dimension, then one is not a dualist. But if one thinks the turning and the consciousness have some independent existence, then one is a dualist.

Your use of "imagine" introduces lots of new ambiguities here but, at bottom, I think you would not say that the consciousness is a soul anymore than you would want to say that the turning is a distinct entity from the wheel. And, if so, you have to explain your use of "imagine".

> Like a wheel turns, the cells secrete experience. Be specific.
>

I have been. I said nothing about secretions, nor does the wheel's turning analogize with a secretion.

> Descartes had the soul in a gland. How is this a shift from him, the
> father of Dualism?
>
> bruce

If you still have to ask that then you are STILL stuck in your ongoing misunderstanding of the analogy of the wheel and the turning. I don't think there can be any sense in answering your last question since it so completely fails to reflect an understanding of anything I've been saying on this subject though it does show your continued commitment to a dualist picture since you cannot shake that no matter how you try apparently (though perhaps you really aren't trying -- which seems more likely, i.e., I think you are so intent on avoiding the picture of mind-brain dependence, at any cost, that you will latch onto anything that floats in this storm of words and paddle furiously)!

SWM

=========================================
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1.2.

Re: Dennett's paradigm shift.

Posted by: "Justintruth" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Feb 16, 2010 3:48 pm (PST)



Here is why I think it is so ?hard to grasp? - as you say: You have
written:

?...if subjectness can be caused by physics then awareness is physical
in THAT critical sense.?

You have also written:

?...Of course it's to be non-physical in the sense of it not being
about describing the physical phenomena but, rather, the ...
experiential phenomena of subjects...?

So basically you are saying that consciousness is physical in one
sense...that it is caused by the brain... and not physical in another
sense...?of it not being about describing the physical phenomena but,
rather, the ... experiential phenomena of subjects?

Three things would make the debate clearer:

First: Whenever you say that consciousness is physical, or something
like that, say something like ?physical only in the sense that it is
caused by something material, not in the sense that it is not about
describing the experiential phenomena of subjects which is in a sense
non-physical.?

(Personally I do not like using the term phenomena when dealing with
consciousness but I can use it loosely here.)

Second: Stop calling the idea that the brain causes consciousness a
new idea, or Dennett's new paradigm shift, etc, as the idea that the
brain materially causes consciousness has been around a very long time
and predates Dennett for a very long time. No one yet has a precise
description of the mechanism and new ideas for it are all over the
place - that is true. When you say it is a new idea then one naturally
begins to search for something beyond the fact that the physical brain
causes consciousness and the confusion is re-initiated. In fact, you
have clarified for me that that is not Dennet's position either, and I
confess that when I hear him I was very confused because in places he
seemed to be asserting that consciousness did in fact exist and in
others that *only* the physical processes instead of the "experiential
phenomena of subjects" were existing. Often words like "one is fooled
into believing" etc are used to eliminate the clear case that
consciousness exists in fact. It is a fact that can be lost or gained
and that is amply demonstrated by anesthesia which has been arround
since before my birth.

Third: Abandon the wheel moving analogy as it is misleading. The
motion of a wheel is a physical description of the relation over time
between the object and some reference. It is confusing because it can
be interpreted to mean that consciousness means some kind of such
relationship save it being more complex. Rather consciousness refers,
as you have said to the ... ?experiential phenomena of subjects? which
is, as you have characterized it ?non-physical? in the sense that it
is distinct form the mere physical phenomena of which the wheel's
turning is one.

I would abandon the wheel analogy even though it aptly points out that
not all physical facts are physical objects but rather some are a
function of the configuration of the objects as Witt. so aptly
describes. Unfortunately, consciousness is not just a function of the
configuration of the objects but is the "experiential phenomena of
subjects" and so the danger of the analogy falsing causing someone to
believe that you think that "the experienctial phenomena of subjects"
and the "configuration of physcial objects" in the sense that Witt
wrote, are identical.
=========================================
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1.3.

Re: Dennett's paradigm shift.

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Feb 16, 2010 5:33 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Justintruth <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> Here is why I think it is so "hard to grasp" - as you say: You have
> written:
>
> "...if subjectness can be caused by physics then awareness is physical
> in THAT critical sense."

> You have also written:

> "...Of course it's to be non-physical in the sense of it not being
> about describing the physical phenomena but, rather, the ...
> experiential phenomena of subjects..."

> So basically you are saying that consciousness is physical in one
> sense...that it is caused by the brain... and not physical in another
> sense..."of it not being about describing the physical phenomena but,
> rather, the ... experiential phenomena of subjects"
>

Yes.

> Three things would make the debate clearer:
>
> First: Whenever you say that consciousness is physical, or something
> like that, say something like "physical only in the sense that it is
> caused by something material, not in the sense that it is not about
> describing the experiential phenomena of subjects which is in a sense
> non-physical."
>

I have always tried to do that, sometimes writing extensive caveats in order to make the point (and often repeating myself so that some readers get frustrated with my apparent didacticism in constantly reiterating the whole long explanation -- which is why at this stage in the multi-list debate I do tend to just assume my interlocutors are familiar with what I've said before -- though naturally that won't apply to new "auditors" of the debate).

I have certainly never suggested that consciousness is entity-like the way a physical thing or object is. Indeed, denying THAT picture is the crux of my claim here.

But you have accurately zeroed in on the distinction I have been making and you did it by citing my own words which ought to indicate that I HAVE been doing what you urge me to do, i.e., making that distinction. But it does appear as if there are some who simply won't acknowledge it and persist in confusing a claim of physical causation with a claim of physical thinghood.

> (Personally I do not like using the term phenomena when dealing with
> consciousness but I can use it loosely here.)
>

I'm using it loosely, too, and not in the technical sense one might use when arguing for phenomenalism, say.

> Second: Stop calling the idea that the brain causes consciousness a
> new idea, or Dennett's new paradigm shift, etc, as the idea that the
> brain materially causes consciousness has been around a very long time
> and predates Dennett for a very long time. No one yet has a precise
> description of the mechanism and new ideas for it are all over the
> place - that is true. When you say it is a new idea then one naturally
> begins to search for something beyond the fact that the physical brain
> causes consciousness and the confusion is re-initiated.

What is new here is not a claim that the brain causes the mind but how Dennett explains its occurrence. Nor is it entirely new with Dennett, either, as we have seen. In fact, I came to it quite independently of Dennett, after reading and considering Searle's arguments against this view (though Dennett seems to have reached the conclusion before me and wrote it up in a way that is far more comprehensive and clearer than I could have done).

As I delved more deeply into Searle's Chinese Room Argument, I realized why his argument fails, i.e., it presumes irreducibility on the grounds that consciousness looks irreducible to us when considered on its own terms. How can something having what Searle calls a First Person ontology be explainable in a third person way?

In fact, though, even Searle acknowledges that brains "cause" consciousness so there is a fundamental confusion deep within his argument. And that confusion rests on an implicit dualism which presumes that consciousness cannot be reduced to non-conscious constituents. But the only reason that would be true is if consciousness is inconceivable as a process-based system. But Dennett shows how it can be -- and that is his contribution in this area.

> In fact, you
> have clarified for me that that is not Dennet's position either, and I
> confess that when I hear him I was very confused because in places he
> seemed to be asserting that consciousness did in fact exist and in
> others that *only* the physical processes instead of the "experiential
> phenomena of subjects" were existing. Often words like "one is fooled
> into believing" etc are used to eliminate the clear case that
> consciousness exists in fact. It is a fact that can be lost or gained
> and that is amply demonstrated by anesthesia which has been arround
> since before my birth.
>

Dennett argues that what consciousness is is not what it appears to be to us, but he does not argue that we don't have the features we associate with being conscious (awareness, senses of being a self, understanding, intentionality, etc.). So on his view consciousness is real -- to us because we experience -- but it's not a real bottom-line entity that co-exists with the physical. Rather it's an outcome of certain physical events.

> Third: Abandon the wheel moving analogy as it is misleading. The
> motion of a wheel is a physical description of the relation over time
> between the object and some reference. It is confusing because it can
> be interpreted to mean that consciousness means some kind of such
> relationship save it being more complex. Rather consciousness refers,
> as you have said to the ... "experiential phenomena of subjects" which
> is, as you have characterized it "non-physical" in the sense that it
> is distinct form the mere physical phenomena of which the wheel's
> turning is one.
>

I see your point. It can be misleading. But note that I only introduced it (and now I'm reaching back into the history of these discussions) for Bruce who could not see how we could refer to something in some physical way if it were not entity-like. I made the point that we refer to and name all sorts of things, from institutions to electromagnetism to gravity to various observable processes, all the time which we believe are part of the physical universe and yet which are not entity-like the way rocks and trees and rubber balls are.

I am not suggesting, via this analogy, that consciousness is just a physical process (say the flashing signals occurring in various patterns in the brain) the way a wheel's turning is. Of course there is subjective experience. That is the point of the two-sided coin analogy (also imperfect, like the wheel and its turning, but to the particular point). In this case the relevant brain processes (certain brain events) are the coin. The physical manifestations we observe being one side, the subjectness of experience being the other. but no, you can't flip this coin the way you can one from the U.S. mint. The analogy has its limitations and is only presented to demonstrate a particular point, in this case, how one can accept a claim that there is a kind of identity between brain (or certain aspects of it) and mind, without buying into the paradoxes that would attend if the identity claim were one of logical identity (a thing is the same as itself).

Here, I think, Sean makes a good point when he indicates that language with its wide range of uses is not, strictly speaking, fully accountable within a syllogistic straight jacket.

> I would abandon the wheel analogy even though it aptly points out that
> not all physical facts are physical objects but rather some are a
> function of the configuration of the objects as Witt. so aptly
> describes. Unfortunately, consciousness is not just a function of the
> configuration of the objects but is the "experiential phenomena of
> subjects" and so the danger of the analogy falsing causing someone to
> believe that you think that "the experienctial phenomena of subjects"
> and the "configuration of physcial objects" in the sense that Witt
> wrote, are identical.
> =========================================
> Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/
>

I see your point. Of course, I use the analogy as you explain above. It is not a claim that consciousness is just so many physical events because there is a side of the coin that is outside of the usual observable domain of what we generally recognize as phyical events. This points up the weakness of language in this domain. Being public in its genesis, it is not highly suited for making references to non-public phenomena. And yet we persist in doing it. The alternative would be to pass over this in silence as some Wittgensteinians might want to say is the better approach in keeping with the early Wittgenstein.

In fact, I don't see any reason to believe the later Wittgenstein would have agreed, first because he was not anti-science even if he was anti-scientism and science needs to be able to talk in affirmative terms about this phenomenon we call consciousness, and second because Wittgenstein himself often alluded to mental events including having pictures in our heads, thoughts, etc. He could not have done that if he were a pure behaviorist (as some on this list have asserted) or even a proto-behaviorist nor if his view was just to go silent in the face of such questions.

Anyway, thanks for pointing out some areas where I could be clearer or where, perhaps, others reading my comments may not be getting what I am trying to convey.

SWM

=========================================
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2.1.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Feb 16, 2010 5:38 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "BruceD" <blroadies@> wrote:
>

<snip>

>
> > An example: My brain causes me to be in pain. I keep the pain to
> > myself because complaining serves no purpose, as I see it. If my
> > brain causes me not to complain, then I'm not acting with purpose,
> > because "I" drops out of the account.
>
> I don't care for that way of talking. It seems to me that it is you,
> not the brain, that is causing you not to complain.
>
> I think that you agree with me on that, while Stuart disagrees.
>
> Regards,
> Neil
>
> =========================================

Where is the "I" without the brain? -- SWM

=========================================
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3a.

Re: mathematics threads, with autobio (Urner)

Posted by: "kirby urner" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Feb 16, 2010 4:20 pm (PST)



On Sun, Feb 14, 2010 at 10:19 PM, kirby urner <kirby.urner@gmail.com> wrote:
> MY PHILOSOPHICAL STUDIES

> FULLER'S PHILOSOPHY

> TETRAHEDRAL MENSURATION

> INITIAL CONTACT WITH FULLER

> CAMPAIGNING FOR MATH REFORMS

> CONNECTING TO WITTGENSTEIN
>
> What does any of this have to do with Wittgenstein?
>

http://mail.geneseo.edu/pipermail/math-thinking-l/2010-February/000589.html

In my above response of this morning, I circle my allegiance to Wittgenstein
and his philosophy.

Kirby

>
> 4D vs 4D vs 4D
>

> Stay tuned.
>
==========================================

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4.

Grammatical mode is mood

Posted by: "void" rgoteti@xxxxxxxxx   rgoteti

Tue Feb 16, 2010 9:30 pm (PST)



Knowing the meaning of a word can involve knowing many things: to what objects the word refers (if any), whether it is slang or not, what part of speech it is, whether it carries overtones, and if so what kind they are, and so on. To know all this, or to know enough to get by, is to know the use. And generally knowing the use means knowing the meaning. Philosophical questions about consciousness, for example, then, should be responded to by looking at the various uses we make of the word "consciousness." Scientific investigations into the brain are not directly relevant to this inquiry (although they might be indirectly relevant if scientific discoveries led us to change our use of such words). The meaning of any word is a matter of what we do with our language, not something hidden inside anyone's mind or brain. This is not an attack on neuroscience. It is merely distinguishing philosophy (which is properly concerned with linguistic or conceptual analysis) from science (which is concerned with discovering facts).

Our investigation is a grammatical one. Such an investigation sheds light on our problem by clearing misunderstandings away. Misunderstandings concerning the use of words, caused, among other things, by certain analogies between the forms of _expression_ in different regions of language.

Grammatical mood (also mode) is one of a set of distinctive verb forms that are used to signal modality.[1] It is distinct from grammatical tense or grammatical aspect, although these concepts are conflated to some degree in many languages, including English and most other modern Indo-European languages, insofar as the same word patterns are used to express more than one of these concepts at the same time.

thank you
sekhar

5.

Language as the mirror of the world

Posted by: "void" rgoteti@xxxxxxxxx   rgoteti

Tue Feb 16, 2010 10:02 pm (PST)



Abstract

Wittgenstein in the Tractatus focussed on a picture theory of language. He was clear that this meant that language mirrored reality, mirrored the world. The picture theory was an account in essence of the relation between a word and what it referred to in the external environment, or between a sentence, a proposition or sachverhalt and the event or situation to which it referred. The Tractatus was completed in 1919 and published in 1922. Within the space of 11 years after its publication Wittgenstein had abandoned the picture theory and, in the Blue Book and the Brown Book, sketched out a quite different account of language as a congeries of language games, and different languages as different sets of language games; words were given their meanings by use, by explanation, by training and essentially by social interaction. This changed account took its definitive form in the Philosophical Investigations, posthumously published in 1953. Wittgenstein did not wholly abandon the Tractatus and would have liked the Tractatus and his later writings to be published together, though this was never done before his early death (Hacker 1996). There is a problem how he could have presented two such different accounts of language with equal conviction. Can they be reconciled? The examination in much greater depth of both may solve the problem. Since the Tractatus and the Philosophical Investigations, there have been massive advances in different but equally relevant fields: in linguistics, in neurology, in philosophical discussion, in evolutionary theory, in psychology, in child development. Most recently and relevantly, there has been the discovery of mirror neurons (Rizzolatti & Arbib 1998), neurons which are excited by the perception of action and which seem to constitute the precursors of motor programs to reproduce the perceived action, that is, a plausible basis for imitation and communication. There has also been great progress in the study of the active brain in the production of speech, using fMRI, PET, ERP, MEG and there are new ideas on the motor basis of speech production and speech perception, on the relation of speech and gesture, on visual and auditory perception. The paper will suggest that in the light of all these developments Wittgenstein's two accounts of language can be reconciled within a larger framework, and the philosophy and science of language can profitably be linked with each other.
Item Type: Preprint
Additional Information: presented at 30th LACUS, Victoria University, Canada
Keywords: Wittgenstein, mirror neurons, Rorty, motor control, Chomsky, minimalism, language evolution, brain-scanning
Subjects: Philosophy > Philosophy of Language
ID Code: 3110
Deposited By: Allott, R M
Deposited On: 16 Aug 2003
Last Modified: 19 Dec 2009 19:19

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