[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 130

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 4 Feb 2010 10:59:33 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (19 Messages)

Messages

1.1.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 6:22 am (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
>
> > Now note, as well, that I don't reference "magical internal
> > processing" so your response concerning it seems to miss (or
> > mischaracterize) some of what I've said. I am, rather, talking
> > about perfectly ordinary processes, the kinds we can observe and
> > track in brains using the right instrumentation.
>
> Arthur C. Clarke supposedly said "Any sufficiently advanced technology
> is indistinguishable from magic
> <http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Clarke's_three_laws> ." I was using
> "magic" in that sense. No mischaracterization intended.
>

Then there would be nothing special in calling it "magic" of course, it would just be a remark about the current state of knowledge, namely that we lack it. But then there WOULD be something "magical" going on in that sense, no? That is, we don't know what the processes in brains are precisely, how they do what they do, and to acknowledge that is not to assert that there is something beyond the ordinary going on. Yet didn't you say there is no magic to the processes in question though, since we lack knowledge of how they work and you are using "magic" in this Clarkian sense, it would be more appropriate to say there is!

I wouldn't use that formulation myself because of the normal uses of "magic" but given your definition it would be acceptable to do so without violating the norms of scientific discourse.

>
<snip>

>
>
> > So there is still this problem of subjectness that, perhaps, speaking
> > of interaction with the world is not quite sufficient to address.
>
>
> >> Unfortunately, you don't seem to be receptive to a discussion of
> >> that way of interacting.
>

> It seems to me that you have just done it again. I try to introduce a
> discussion of interaction. It is hard to see your response as anything
> other than giving it the brush off.
>

This I don't understand, Neil. I am trying to discuss experience, being conscious, being a subject, etc., etc. To have that we have this first person point of view and the challenge is to say how that can exist in what seems, on the face of it, to be an otherwise third person world. There have been lots of answers to this ranging from idealism to dualism to materialism, etc., and many nuances in between. All seem to founder on the ongoing strangeness that some physical things are animate, sentient, aware while others aren't. It looks like this being aware, etc., is a special case, explainable as an added property or as a co-existing stuff with the stuff of matter.

You propose we suppose that the answer to this lies in talk about interacting, i.e., that we say consciousness comes about because of the way we interact with our environment. Now if you mean the physical interactions of our underlying physical stuff with all the other physical stuff around us, then I won't disagree because this is to say no more than what I have been saying all along, that physical operations give rise, in certain cases, to subjective experience.

But if you mean to say that we get consciousness by interacting with our environment where the interactor is us in the fuller sense of the word (including our being subjects) it seems to me this begs the question. Now I certainly did take you to be saying this latter since, if you were saying the former, it would seem we were already in agreement in which case there would be no reason to try to convince me of the role of interaction in the world.

However, to take this a step further, what we are really trying to do here, I think, is give an account which could explain HOW such interactions (which are recognizable as wholly third person, i.e., observable, phenomena) bring about the subjective. I've argued that it is perfectly explainable as processes in the brain and I am presuming you agree. Then the question is what do we mean by "processes in the brain", that is what is it about the processes that could make the difference?

My view, oft expressed here and elsewhere, is that it is the functions, the things the processes accomplish. Described in terms of computers we might say the programs but that term is misleading because we tend to think of instructions devised and coded by persons for a purpose, i.e., to get the machine to do what it does. And no one is claiming that brains are programmed in this way even if what they are doing is running processes that accomplish certain tasks like computer programs do. So the better way to think about this, I believe, is to chuck the term "program" and replace it with "algorithm" which is just to put a name to sets of instructions, broken down into steps. Computer programs embody algorithms and an organizational procedure, followed by workers in the organization would also be appropriately called an algorithm

On that view, there is nothing strange in saying that brains are constructed by the human organism in its formative stages according to a blueprint contained in the DNA which is to say according to algorithms, and that they then do what they do according to other algorithms some of which are, perhaps, just a function of their construction and some are uniquely developed through interaction with the environments in which they find themselves.

Now I am guessing that you have no problem with any of this so that we are really not so far apart. Jeff Hawkins, as we've seen, argues that brain algorithms, at least at the level of operation, have to be relatively simple and it is for this reason he thinks the AI project is doomed to fail, i.e., because it is aimed at reconstructing everything brains do via minute algorithms which, he notes, would be too demanding for the relatively slow processing capacity of our brains. Therefore he argues for a simple and relatively uniform algorithm at the neuronal level and for complexity in the architectural level (how the neurons are arranged and interact in the brain).

So your proposal that consciousness is about interacting does not strike me as strange if it is meant in a sense like this (which is what I now take you to be saying). But, if so, what is the difference between what you are proposing and some of the stuff I've floated here, vis a vis computationalism, Hawkins' ideas about intelligence, etc.? We get consciousness through interaction you say. Okay, but how? (I am not asking you to give me a defnitive answer, to prove anything. I am just asking that you spell out the mechanism[s] you think are at work here as I try to do, as Dennett does and as Hawkins does. Since you are disagreeing with them, and apparently with me, what are you saying is wrong with these approaches and what would be a better approach?)

> You seem to be saying there "Well, okay, maybe interaction is
> important. But it is boring humdrum stuff. So lets postpone any
> discussion for now, and instead get right the heart of consciousness."

Not at all. I am just saying what kind of interaction do you have in mind? What interacts with what and which interactions are specific to the production of consciousness on your view? I have suggested it is a kind of information processing that is occurring in brains. But you seem uncomfortable with that approach. What then is going on that does it?

> However, my whole point is that interaction is at the heart of
> consciousness, and that consciousness cannot be understood except in
> relation to our interaction with the world.
>

I think there is some truth to that. But lots of things interact with the world. The question is why do certain things interact in a certain way and that brings about consciousness? Why do some things, like rocks, remain inanimate whereas other things like people do not? And where are the gradations, the thresholds, between people and other animals. What are the processes that differentiate these?

>
> > Maybe it's just me Neil. I really don't follow this well
> > enough. Normally when we speak of decisions being made we already
> > have a conscious entity making decisions in mind. Machines don't
> > make decisions though we can use computers to make pre-programmed
> > choices and, thus, decisions in a sense.
>
> Perhaps you missed the literature on free will, wherein it is often
> argued that we don't make decisions either. Even Searle is troubled by
> this, as he indicates in his youtube video
> <http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=vCyKNtocdZE> . If decisions are based
> on truth, then you aren't really making a decision, for the truth
> dictates the decision to you. So you are left with dictated decisions
> and totally random decisions.
>

I think that kind of thinking stems from a misunderstanding of what we mean by "free will". Freedom is lots of things from political freedom to existential freedom. The term denotes different capacities within different contexts. Supposing that we are not free when we act on good reasons because we are somehow bound to abide by reason is a strange, and to me misapplication, of the notion of freedom.

> It seems to me that the only real decisions we make are those that are
> pragmatic.

Meaning to act for reasons (to achieve particular ends)? Okay, but on this view, when you invoke "pragmatism" I immediately hear a thinking, reasoning subject which implies consciousness. But from what you've said, that isn't what you have in mind so presumably you mean just a kind of blind activity that bumps along until something works and that the evolutionary process delivers, in the end, an entity that bumps better than other entities. I think this is fine as far as it goes. I have no beef with it. But it doesn't begin to specify what it is our bumping entity has learned to do that makes it aware of itself and what is going on around it, etc.

> And it seems to me that pragmatic decisions require some
> sort of purpose, though they need not require consciousness.
>

I agree with that as well. But at some point we get consciousness and that is the question before us. Why does consciousness come about at some point and what is it that our bumping entity does that generates the features we associate with being conscious?

>
> > This means it needs to be able to know and understand its choices
> > and to come to the point of selection in a way that is at least
> > roughly analogous with how and what we do what we do.
>
> A pragmatic decision requires some sort of weighing of choices to see
> how they fit the driving purposes. But I think such weighing requires
> a lot less than a full human consciousness.
>
>

I agree. Lots of animals at every level give evidence of being able to make choices. I recall Hawkins' example of the lizard and the rat in the maze. The rat learns, he notes, the lizard doesn't. He ascribes that to the fact that the rat has a cortex which the lizard lacks. Yet a lizard will scream in pain as much as a rat so it would seem odd to say the lizard lacked awareness (an important feature of consciousness). Hawkins aims to show the role of cortexes in intelligence but in so doing he also presents a picture of a very truncated consciousness in the lizard. Yet even the lizard is capable of making some choices, running away in some cases, attacking in others, mating in still others. Eating or not eating. This puts our lizard above the rock though, perhaps, not above other lower forms of life like frogs and fish and protozoas.

<snip>

>
> > Is this picture really all that different from Dennett's proposal
> > that brains run processes in the way computers run algorithms?
>
> Yes, very different. I'll think about posting a comparison in the next
> day or two.
>
> Regards,
> Neil
>

I'll look forward to it then. So far I have to say that I don't see a lot of difference, in principle, between your account and Dennett's. Granted you don't like the computational analogy but, insofar as your account hinges on an identification of consciousness with the occurrence of certain processes it is on the same order. I presume you will differ from Dennett in somewhat the way that Hawkins differs from Minsky?

SWM

=========================================
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1.2.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 12:09 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> Is this picture really all that different from Dennett's proposal
> that brains run processes in the way computers run algorithms?

Here's a quick comparison. I'll use "A:" to prefix the AI/Dennett
view, and "N:" to prefix my view.

Information

A: Information is a naturally occuring part of the world, and is picked
up by sensory cells.

N: Information is inherently abstract, so does not exist apart from its
construction and use by humans (or other cognitive agents. We interact
with the world in order to construct information, and we use sensory
cells in that interaction.

Core functionality

A: Computation/logic, applied to the information picked up by A:
sensory cells.

N: Information gathering, which I shall loosely refer to as
"measurement".

Starting point

A: Most AI people assume large amounts of innate knowledge or
structure, perhaps in the form of a program and a data base (often
called a "knowledge base").

N: Self measurement of internal states. The system can be said to
have, as innate purposes, the maintaining of internal states within
innately prescribed limits. Among those innate purposes is a drive to
explore ways of interacting with the world, including ways of forming
information about the world.

Learning

A: The usual AI view of learning is one of discovering patterns within
the input that is picked up. There is also some consideration of
reinforcement learning.

N: Learning is acquiring behaviors which tend to promote the ability of
the system to meet its purposes. With each new behavior, there is an
accompanying new measurement system for self-measuring performance in
carrying out that behavior. Of particular importance are behaviors
that provide ways of forming information about the external world - we
can refer to that as discovery/invention of new ways of measuring.
Note that this could be described as perceptual learning.

N: With each new way of measuring, there is an associated new concept
(that which is measured). With each new self-measurement associated
with new acquired behaviors, there is a new purpose of carrying out
that new behavior appropriately.

Intentionality

A: The usual AI view is that there is nothing more to intentionality
than attribution. That is, there is only derived intentionality.
Dennett argues for that in his "The Intentional Stance."

N: The initial self-measurement of internal states, and the consquent
initial purposes, are perhaps best considered to be examples only of
derived intentionality. However, the new measuring systems created by
the system itself are best considered to be examples of orginal
intentionality. In particular, information about the world that is
formed on the basis of these acquired measuring systems should be
considered intentional information.

Free will

A: The behavior of the system is determined by the input and the
mechanistic rules it is following. The system is free to choose only
in the compatibist sense that it is free to accede to doing what the
mechanism dictates that it shall do.

N: Free will is the ability to make pragmatic choices. The options are
evaluated according to the systems purposes, and a choice is made in
accordance with those purposes. Note that there might be several
relevant purposes and some of them might be in conflict.

Regards,
Neil
1.3.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 1:53 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
>
> > Is this picture really all that different from Dennett's proposal
> > that brains run processes in the way computers run algorithms?

> Here's a quick comparison. I'll use "A:" to prefix the AI/Dennett
> view, and "N:" to prefix my view.
>

This is very difficult for me to parse (having already read it once through -- those who carp about my tendency to respond on the fly, please take note!) but I will attempt to follow and ask questions or comment in the appropriate places.

> Information
>
> A: Information is a naturally occuring part of the world, and is picked
> up by sensory cells.
>
> N: Information is inherently abstract, so does not exist apart from its
> construction and use by humans (or other cognitive agents. We interact
> with the world in order to construct information, and we use sensory
> cells in that interaction.
>

What does the claim that information is a naturally occurring part of the world rather than being abstract amount to?

In one sense, no doubt, all that the "A" people would want to say is that abstractions don't occur in any causal way, they are ideas, general ones in fact, covering a number of cases. Hence they are only in the mind (as you seem to be saying Neil). Nevertheless, if that WERE the case, if they had no concrete reality at all we would have the situation Searle envisions with computer programs, i.e., nothing happening in the world, just ideas in some heads as it were, the meaning of the computer codes in the minds of their programmers and the understanding of the computer users.

Yet things DO happen in the world as we know and computers programmed in particular ways certainly cause physical events. People with ideas in their heads take actions.

A way around this? Josh would likely say that all abstractions are really elaborations of very precise, concrete things, events, what have you. There is not the class of X but the name we give to X-1, X-2, X-3, etc., until all the relevant X's are exhausted in some relevant context (the class of all X's in Y).

Where are the classes themselves? Well not anywhere, really. Speaking of classes is just a way of organizing our references to many X's. One could, conceivably, organize these in other ways, too. All the X's in Y, all the X's that Z, etc. Classifying and grouping just seem to be natural things we do. It's how we think about and talk about the multiplicity of our phenomenal world.

But what is an X, itself, then? Josh (again I am guessing but perhaps I am not far off) would say it's this particular X and this one . . . and this one and so on. But as soon as we name whatever the referent of X is and say THAT is an X (what I mean by "X"), we are back to this idea of "information" aren't we, i.e., a named particular is no less an instance of information than a generalization about many X's. That is, calling a referent an X is informational, no less than grouping multiple X's in some fashion. To name something is already "informative", it already represents information!

I think you are right, Neil, that information needs to be information FOR someone and I also think it needs to be ABOUT something. So there is no information without minds. But THAT information, the kind minds hold/think about/conceive, must be grounded in something or we are left with an abyss between whatever it is minds do and the world. But that can't be because 1) minds lead to effects in the world and 2) the world can manifestly have effects on minds.

If there was no physical reality, no phenomenal input, there could not be anything to be informed about. So I think Josh (and I'm picking on him because he's our most explicit nominalist here) would say that there must be a physical underpinning to every informational conception, every informational application.

How then are we to understand the physics of the phenomenally real world if we presume a divide between what the mind is and the world it knows? Searle says what is abstract can have no causal efficacy except through an agential medium (someone who can act with intention, who makes the abstraction concrete). But if a view like the one I am imputing to Josh is true, every single physical transaction, whether between two mindless entities or one minded entity and one mindless one, or between two minded entities must occur in a physical medium. How then does information as abstract mesh with the causally real, how does the general with fit with the particular?

Can it make sense to suppose that information is always set apart from what it is information about or is it really more sensible to collapse the distinction between information as abstraction and information as what is particular? After all, the work of both computers and brains occur in terms of real world events, albeit of an an apparently quite different sort.

Searle grounds his later argument on this question of the causal incapacity of the abstract. But can we really presume such a radical disconnect between what is abstract and what is causal?

You say, Neil, that "We interact with the world in order to construct information, and we use sensory cells in that interaction." But how can we interact if there is this radical divide? How can "we use" anything, how can sensory cells do anything to anything else if there is not some kind of transactional event occurring between physical entities at some level?

I don't want to suggest that we don't construct ideas, impose form on raw data because I think it's pretty clear we do. But perhaps it's a confusion to suppose that in so doing we are taking something from an abstract realm to superimpose it on raw, formless physical phenomena. Perhaps THAT is just a picture which is finally misleading?

If the universe has order (and everything we know tells us it does) why should we suppose that that order is only in our mind, our way of seeing things?

While we can never know what the universe would be without the presence of observers like us (and indeed, on a strictly individual phenomenal level there would just be nothing at all), there is no reason to think the universe exists only in our own minds (though, metaphysically speaking, there may be no reason to think otherwise, either). If it doesn't then there is order to it, beyond ourselves, and our capacity to succeed in it, to survive and even, at times, to prosper, must depend on our being in sync with such an order, an order that cannot be something imposed by each and every observer at each moment of that observer's existence.

If this is the right way of looking at this, then information IS a naturally occuring phenomenon (as the "A" people say). It's just different than what we normally think of as "information" when we consider things like knowledge, perceptions, etc. That is, what we think of as the information we have in our heads would just be a particular manifestation of the physical events that underlie the reality that produces brains, brain events and the sense of subjectness that we recognize as having a mind, being conscious, when we consider ourselves.


> Core functionality
>
> A: Computation/logic, applied to the information picked up by A:
> sensory cells.
>
> N: Information gathering, which I shall loosely refer to as
> "measurement".
>
> Starting point
>
> A: Most AI people assume large amounts of innate knowledge or
> structure, perhaps in the form of a program and a data base (often
> called a "knowledge base").
>

This may be. I don't know what the underlying assumptions are of most AI folks. But I don't think it is essential to the AI project to think this way. Yes there must be some structured mechanism or medium to have the interactions we think of as being conscious. But is that "innate knowledge" in any real sense? Is a "tabula rasa" that if it lacks the form of a tabula, the emptiness of being rasa, etc.? And if it doesn't, does that mean we must say that there is already innate knowledge that is part of being a tabula rasa because it looks like a blackboard rather than a grapefruit?

> N: Self measurement of internal states. The system can be said to
> have, as innate purposes, the maintaining of internal states within
> innately prescribed limits. Among those innate purposes is a drive to
> explore ways of interacting with the world, including ways of forming
> information about the world.
>

I think we can actually join your A and N here. That is, the system you seem to have in mind already has form, as the tabula rasa does. It's an X and not a Y. But that doesn't imply that it isn't interactive with its world or capable of ongoing adjustment to the inputs it is receiving. Is the fact that it is the particular kind of system it is, "innate knowledge"? Well it might be, depending on how sophisticated the particular system is. Thus, human brains are better prepped to handle the world than some other kinds of animals' brains or equivalents. Other animal brains may be better prepped though for their particular environments. Innate knowledge? Maybe. But then how does that differ from the supposition you propose the "A" people hold?

That there is a drive to achieve and maintain internal integrity, to self-propagate, etc., as a means of system self-preservation in no way obviates the idea that systems are suited for particular conditions and that sometimes some of that suiting involves a great deal of built-in capacity for flexibility.

> Learning
>
> A: The usual AI view of learning is one of discovering patterns within
> the input that is picked up. There is also some consideration of
> reinforcement learning.
>

> N: Learning is acquiring behaviors which tend to promote the ability of
> the system to meet its purposes. With each new behavior, there is an
> accompanying new measurement system for self-measuring performance in
> carrying out that behavior. Of particular importance are behaviors
> that provide ways of forming information about the external world - we
> can refer to that as discovery/invention of new ways of measuring.
> Note that this could be described as perceptual learning.
>

The idea of behaviors does not undermine the idea that there is also a subjective live, thoughts, mental pictures, memories of such, etc. What, after all, drives a great number of our behaviors if not the mental events that make up our inner world of thought and feeling? Yet, where is the mental life in your picture here? I think the picture you draw immediately above is not complete.

> N: With each new way of measuring, there is an associated new concept
> (that which is measured). With each new self-measurement associated
> with new acquired behaviors, there is a new purpose of carrying out
> that new behavior appropriately.
>

And purposes are articulable and, also, conceptual (we can explain our purpose in our own heads or just grasp something we're after in the form of a mental picture). Isn't the real question here how it is that we come to a point where we have a mental life in the way we do, how it is we get self-awareness, reasoning, etc.?

> Intentionality
>
> A: The usual AI view is that there is nothing more to intentionality
> than attribution. That is, there is only derived intentionality.
> Dennett argues for that in his "The Intentional Stance."
>

I'm not sure that's quite fair. Even Dennett doesn't say we don't think about things. He just wants to say there is no such thing as a phenomenon of intentionality somewhere in the brain but, rather, it's just a way of relating to things around us. We call it "intentionality" because we see it in the behavior of others and so we think that there is some special intentional feature happening in their brains. But, on Dennett's view, there isn't. Intentionality is just a term we impute to certain things behaving in a certain way.

> N: The initial self-measurement of internal states, and the consquent
> initial purposes, are perhaps best considered to be examples only of
> derived intentionality. However, the new measuring systems created by
> the system itself are best considered to be examples of orginal
> intentionality. In particular, information about the world that is
> formed on the basis of these acquired measuring systems should be
> considered intentional information.
>

This, I'm afrad, loses me. You have spoken of "intentional information" before but I don't see how this makes either of the constituent terms any clearer. If by "intentional" we mean aboutness (as in thinking about things) then we can say that we are intentional when we make a complex set of relational connections between things we become aware of.

You have also called information, abstract, something imposed on what is not, itself, fundamentally informational because it exists apart from any mental observation. As noted at the outset, I think that is only one use of the term "information" and that a more comprehensive understanding of it would relate it to the transactions between physical phenomena, independent of minds as well. Thus, everytime one physical entity impinges on another, in a perfectly reasonable sense, we could say information is being exchanged, even if there is no thinking observer taking it in, considering it, filing it away!

Now what is "intentional information"? Is it just the information that makes sense to an observer, that the observer is able to impose his/her forms of comprehension upon? Why should that have some special place in the area of physical causation underlying the occurrence of minds in the world?

> Free will
>
> A: The behavior of the system is determined by the input and the
> mechanistic rules it is following. The system is free to choose only
> in the compatibist sense that it is free to accede to doing what the
> mechanism dictates that it shall do.
>
> N: Free will is the ability to make pragmatic choices. The options are
> evaluated according to the systems purposes, and a choice is made in
> accordance with those purposes. Note that there might be several
> relevant purposes and some of them might be in conflict.
>
> Regards,
> Neil
>

Even making pragmatic choices is going to be driven by what serves the purpose so in the same sense one might say choosing only according to the rules isn't "free" neither would choosing according to the purpose because, in this case, the rule is "serve the purpose".

I know my response has been rather extensive. I am not trying to shoot you down Neil. I am just trying to express my concerns about some of the issues you've presented.

But let me ask the original question. Maybe this will help. How do all the foregoing dynamics you've described serve to explain how a brain comes to be or to produce consciousness? What is going on in the brain that is the consciousness and where does it come from? Would you say that abstractions underlie the abstractions of the thinking mind? Mustn't we, finally, presume a physical foundation for thought?

SWM

=========================================
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1.4.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 4:51 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> This is very difficult for me to parse ...

Having read your full reply, I'll say that this is probably the worst
miscommunication ever. In retrospect, I should have realized that
would happen.

There's no way I can straighten that out, so I won't even try.

I'll make a few meta-comments to give some perspective.

There are problems that a cognitive agent needs to solve. AI methods
don't solve them. They don't even attempt to solve them. In fact AI
proponents are blissfully unaware that the problems even exist.

There are other, quite different problems, that AI systems do attempt
to solve. As best I can tell, those are not problems that any actual
cognitive agent needs to solve.

In my last post, I was trying to present the basic principles with
which a cognitive agent would address those problems that it needs to
solve. And, as I should have expected, you have attempted to construe
it as being about the kind of problems that AI systems actually
address.

It's pretty much a total miscommunication.

Regards,
Neil

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1.5.

Neil's meta-comments and Fodor

Posted by: "jrstern" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 5:05 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:
>
> I'll make a few meta-comments to give some perspective.
>
> There are problems that a cognitive agent needs to solve. AI
> methods don't solve them. They don't even attempt to solve them.
> In fact AI proponents are blissfully unaware that the problems
> even exist.

I'm rereading some 1980/1990 Fodor, "RePresentations" and
"A Theory of Content". Both are collections of papers.
"RePresentations" contains his "Methodological Solipsism as a
Research Strategy in Cognitive Psychology".

He makes the point repeatedly, that AI (well, computation per se)
only addresses "formal", computational issues, while "semantics"
that explain behaviors, are something other, which Fodor
generally subsumes under the term "representational".
He asks, "If physicists have numbers to play with, why can't
psychologists have propositional attitudes?"

Among his other labels, Fodor is happy as an "intentional realist",
which he tries (and tries) to square with computational theories
of mind.

Fodor's real project, in his 1975 LOT and all of the subsequent
work, is to explain how these are dual aspects all the way down.

I'm don't think he quite succeeds, many other people don't think
he quite succeeds, and even Fodor himself expresses some doubts that
he ever succeeds. What he says is basically that he's sure he's
working in the right area, and welcomes further progress.

(it's amazing what you can find in old books, when you go back with
a very specific theory in mind!)

Josh

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1.6.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 5:30 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:

> --- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@> wrote:
>
>
> > This is very difficult for me to parse ...
>
> Having read your full reply, I'll say that this is probably the worst
> miscommunication ever. In retrospect, I should have realized that
> would happen.
>
> There's no way I can straighten that out, so I won't even try.
>

Yes, I too should have realized this would be a doomed effort.

> I'll make a few meta-comments to give some perspective.
>
> There are problems that a cognitive agent needs to solve. AI methods
> don't solve them. They don't even attempt to solve them. In fact AI
> proponents are blissfully unaware that the problems even exist.
>
> There are other, quite different problems, that AI systems do attempt
> to solve. As best I can tell, those are not problems that any actual
> cognitive agent needs to solve.
>

But the issue that I am addressing and have always been addressing, even when asking your for explication of your reason for thinking AI is on the wrong track, is not what cognitive agents do but how they come to be in a world chock full of apparently inanimate things.

> In my last post, I was trying to present the basic principles with
> which a cognitive agent would address those problems that it needs to
> solve. And, as I should have expected, you have attempted to construe
> it as being about the kind of problems that AI systems actually
> address.
>
> It's pretty much a total miscommunication.
>
> Regards,
> Neil
>
> =========================================

Yes, but the issue at hand is how do we get these kinds of sentient agents, that is entities with a subjective point of view, entities that experience. It's not what THEY do but how they come to be that AI, and cognitive science generally, addresses.

You have said, here and elsewhere, that AI is on the wrong path and that you have a different, a more promising approach and I asked for more information on that. That is, I asked you to explain what you once told me on another list, that the key to understanding how minds come to be (not came to be as in evolutionarily history!) is in understandinding the homeostasis of living systems (which, presumably, computers don't have). But that still remains unexplicated as far as I can see, or at least I have failed to understand your reasons for thinking homeostasis yields pragmatics yields perception yields mind. There is some account of the mechanics of what brains do that is still missing.

At least Dennett has an account, whether one chooses to say it can't work because it is premised on the abstraction of computational programming or not. I am trying to understand the alternative you once told me you had in mind when you criticized Dennett.

But you're probably right. We've gone over this before and never gotten any further than we now have so perhaps we really are just not understanding each other. I am willing to consider that I just may be missing your points here, as you say. Sorry we couldn't make progress on this though.

SWM

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1.7.

Re: Neil's meta-comments and Fodor

Posted by: "jrstern" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 5:30 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "jrstern" <jrstern@...> wrote:
>
> "RePresentations" contains his "Methodological Solipsism as a
> Research Strategy in Cognitive Psychology".

I meant to mention, that's the paper that was pretty much the
launch point for Searle's Chinese Room.

Searle's reading of Fodor is tendentious (or perhaps just careless)
- Fodor actually answers in this paper many problems that Searle
raises in the Chinese Room.

But there it is, for y'all history buffs.

Josh

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1.8.

Re: Neil's meta-comments and Fodor

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 6:17 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "jrstern" <jrstern@...> wrote:

> Among his other labels, Fodor is happy as an "intentional realist",
> which he tries (and tries) to square with computational theories
> of mind.

> Fodor's real project, in his 1975 LOT and all of the subsequent
> work, is to explain how these are dual aspects all the way down.

You are right, that Fodor does not succeed. His approach won't solve
the "all the way down" part. But he at least comes closer than most to
appreciating what is the problem.

Regards,
Neil

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1.9.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "iro3isdx" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 7:29 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "SWM" <SWMirsky@...> wrote:

> But the issue that I am addressing and have always been addressing,
> even when asking your for explication of your reason for thinking
> AI is on the wrong track, is not what cognitive agents do but how
> they come to be in a world chock full of apparently inanimate things.

But you only see that as a puzzle because of how you are looking at it.
Even the most primitive biological organism has more intentionality than
a computer will ever have. Sure, an amoeba or a plant is not conscious.
But it is still very different from computers.

You are trying to look at every thing as mechanism. And in a way, the
greater puzzle is that you (and others) would do that. As best I can
tell, the only actual mechanisms that exist are human artifacts. So this
whole idea of trying to reduce everything to mechanism seems foolish.

> Yes, but the issue at hand is how do we get these kinds of sentient
> agents, that is entities with a subjective point of view, entities
> that experience. It's not what THEY do but how they come to be that
> AI, and cognitive science generally, addresses.

Yet it seems to me that AI and most of cognitive science make little
effort to address that question. What I more commonly see is people
trying to explain away that question, and to convince themselves that it
is all mechanism. But, if you look around the world, the only
mechanisms are our own created artifacts, so it seems foolish to try to
explain everything as mechanism.

> That is, I asked you to explain what you once told me on another
> list, that the key to understanding how minds come to be (not
> came to be as in evolutionarily history!) is in understandinding
> the homeostasis of living systems (which, presumably, computers
> don't have).

It seems that I cannot explain it. You do not recognize the existence
of the kind of problem that homeostasis can solve, and I have been
singularly unsuccessful in my attempts to introduce you to those
problems.

> At least Dennett has an account, whether one chooses to say it can't
> work because it is premised on the abstraction of computational
> programming or not.

Whether or not it is based on particular abstractions is not what
matters. The learning method proposed for AI is wholly inadequate to
account for human learning.

Regards,
Neil

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1.10.

Is Homeostasis the Answer?  (Re: Variations in the Idea of Conscious

Posted by: "jrstern" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 7:46 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, "iro3isdx" <xznwrjnk-evca@...> wrote:
>
> > But the issue that I am addressing and have always been
> > addressing, even when asking your for explication of your
> > reason for thinking AI is on the wrong track, is not what
> > cognitive agents do but how they come to be in a world chock
> > full of apparently inanimate things.

Is this a special case?

Do you worry about how cats come to be in a world chock full of non-cats? Hot things in a world chock full of cold things?

> But you only see that as a puzzle because of how you are looking
> at it. Even the most primitive biological organism has more
> intentionality than a computer will ever have. Sure, an amoeba
> or a plant is not conscious. But it is still very different from
> computers.

Different, or more?

Even Searle says computers have intentionality -
derived intentionality.

So does Fodor, btw, not derived but vanilla, but only by
invoking his dual-aspect business.

> You are trying to look at every thing as mechanism.

Perhaps mechanism itself is more than previously assumed.

One has to watch all the Wittgensteinian issues here, about
reifying every word.

> Whether or not it is based on particular abstractions is not what
> matters. The learning method proposed for AI is wholly inadequate
> to account for human learning.

Fodor, not to mention Chomsky, assumes innate factors.

Myself, I haven't worried much about learning, I'm still trying
to figure out how something once learned or innate,
could possibly work anyhow.

Josh

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2a.

Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "J D" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 10:20 am (PST)



SW,

As you may or may not have noticed, some of the issues regarding proper names are actually connected with some of the issues in my recent remarks of the grammar of pictures. More on that is soon to come but I thought I'd offer some comments here. I won't comment on Kripke or Russell (except to mention that Russell's work on proper names actually goes through various changes and does go beyond the theory of descriptions) but I will offer some comments and clarifications you may yet find helpful.

"As I understand it, Wittgenstein's basic point is that people confuse the meaning of a name with its bearer."

That's one confusion he addresses. There are others including remarks to those who do not identify the meaning of a name with its bearer.

"He uses Moses and Excalibur as examples"

While Excalibur is used as an example of problems attending to identifying the meaning of a name with its bearer, the Moses example is addressed to those who would wish to identify any single rule as governing the use of a proper name.

"Because proper names (PNs) mean something apart from their bearer, they take on SENSE and are subject to the 'law' (forgive me) of meaning is use."

(I was prepared to "forgive", recognizing a convenient shorthand alluding to Wittgenstein's remarks on meaning and use and "law" being used in a jocular fashion, but this seems to get you into trouble later, so perhaps my being pedantic about this is still necessary.)

Actually, even when we focus on the bearer, this can yet be thought of in terms of use:

43. For a large class of cases--though not for all--in which we employ the word "meaning" it can be defined
thus: the meaning of a word is its use in the language.

And the meaning of a name is sometimes explained by pointing to its bearer.

"But what are the senses of PNs? I have listed four. 'Moses' can mean: (a) a title or rule (the man who saved the Israelites); (b) a description (the old person with a grey beard who works down the road); (c) ostensibility (that person right there); or (d) a branding (Moses is DNA profile such-and-such, or Social Security Number 233-33-5953)."

I'm not sure I see the point in sharply dividing (a) and (b). A title or role is readily assimilated to a description, e.g. "the person who held thus and such a position" is a description as much as "...who works down the road". And descriptions that are not titles can be transformed into titles, as in "the person who earned the highest grades in her class" and "class valedictorian". "The person who received the most votes", "the person who crossed the finish line first", and so forth.

Likewise, "the person assigned thus and such Social security number" is a description.

And if we did need to make finer distinctions here (it depends on our purposes in drawing these distinctions) we should attend to differences in how different "brands" (a misleading simile for various reasons) are used.

A DNA profile may be used to assign a name to a bodily remains (particularly in war or after a disaster) or to identify a missing child found years later. Here it is being used as a rule for the use of the proper name. A military DNA database can be compared to a color chart, giving the rules for matching a particular color to the name of that color.

But (and there are laws, regulations, and rulings governing this) that same databse can also be used in other ways, such as connecting a name with a definite description ("the father of so and so"), where we may or may not have one or more candidates to consider; or an indefinite description ("someone with increased susceptibility to such and such ailment"), where the name of the individual is not in question.

With a criminal database, we may try to link the description, "the person (or one of the people) who raped so and so", with a name in the database. But of course we also take DNA sample of suspects in custody whose names are not in question. Likewise, parents of an abducted child may provide personal affects of their child to confirm the identity of someone who is found years later, whose name is in question.

There are various connections made between names, descriptions, DNA, and putative bearers of names or descriptions.

The (lawful) use of a Social Security number is a different matter. Possessing of the card, knowing the number, knowing the mother's maiden name, the place and date of birth, having additional photographic identification, and so forth, may all be considered. If I don't have the card or know the number, I may not be able to confirm my identity for various purposes. But if I do, I may yet be guilty of malfeasance if the number is not assigned to me. Typically, my right to use the name and the number stands (or falls) as a single issue.

Where the SSN distinguishes one "Jane Smith" from another, the right of Jane to call herself or be called by that name is not in dispute. What may be in dispute are the legitimacy of various descriptions being ascribed to her, e.g. "the person who has accrued this much in benefits".

"Therefore, PN's accurately exist as four BEHAVIORS."

Be very careful here. Proper names are words. Using a proper name is a behavior. The practice of using proper names is an institution. And this practice is involves following rules. But when there are different rules applied to the use of the same proper name or the same word, this is not necessarily different behavior (as if when using a word, the user always were thinking of one rule or another).

Having "a whole series of props in readiness," being "ready to lean on one if another should be taken from under me" (PI 79) does not imply that I always have one rule or another "in mind" when I used a proper name.

Someone says to me: "Shew the children a game." I teach them gaming with dice, and the other says "I didn't
mean that sort of game." Must the exclusion of the game with dice have come before his mind when he gave me the
order? (PI, p.33)

And if circumstances arise that lead me to use one "prop" or another, it does not follow that my behavior in initially using the name would have been different prior to being questioned. If a different question were asked, I should answer differently. And that would not mean that I was lying about what I was doing. The ability to appeal to different rules does not necessarily indicate different actual behavior.

"One of the things that is strange about PN's is that only some of the senses seem to rule the bearer. That is, one could say that Moses did not exist if the story of Israelites is false, even though a man named 'Moses' to whom the story was attributed did, in fact, exist."

One "could" say a great many things.

What does it mean to say that a man named "Moses" did exist? That someone was named "Moses" but nothing in the story is true of him? That's as relevant here as a landscaper named "Jesus" (pardon the crude stereotype) is to the question of historicity of Jesus. When you add, "to whom the story was attributed", this prompts the question: What do we mean by this "Moses", about whom many false things were said, from any number of other people named "Moses"?

And Wittgenstein does not say that some of the senses "rule the bearer". He rightly challenges that idea:

I shall perhaps say: By "Moses" I understand the man who did what the Bible relates of Moses, or at
any rate a good deal of it. But how much? Have I decided how much must be proved false for me to give up my
proposition as false? Has the name "Moses" got a fixed and unequivocal use for me in all possible cases? (PI 79)

If Bacon wrote the plays, then Shakespeare did not. Or if "Shakespeare" is Bacon's pseudonym, then Bacon is Shakespeare. But we believe other things about Shakespeare, such as that he had a career performing at The Globe. If these (and other beliefs) also turned out false, we could say "Shakespeare did not exist." We could also say that Bacon is Shakespeare, so Shakespeare did exist, but that many false beliefs had been attached to the pseudonym.

And why should we expect that the rules would be prepared in advance to determine which would be correct?

"It would be the same as saying 'George Washington was the man who could never tell a lie,' and learning that this is false -- he told many. And upon hearing of this, in your delusion, you might say, 'The George Washington I know doesn't exist.'"

That would be hyperbole and of course such expressions have their use. But saying that George Washington did not exist in the sense that an archaeologist or hostorian might say that Moses did not would not be a matter of being disilusioned about any particular belief but rather finding that a great deal of military and political history was false.

"He says that the meaning of PN's is variable DURING THEIR DEPLOYMENT."

Yes. But I don't know where you're getting the idea that he also said that other senses were fixed.

So my definition of "N" would perhaps be "the man of whom all this is
true".--But if some point now proves false?--Shall I be prepared to declare the proposition "N is dead" false--even if
it is only something which strikes me as incidental that has turned out false? But where are the bounds of the
incidental?--If I had given a definition of the name in such a case, I should now be ready to alter it. (PI 79)

"Now, what does Wittgenstein's view of PN's do to Russell? Here, the idea of the theory of descriptions is in trouble, right? Because, after Wittgenstein, you cannot say of 'Moses' that it refers to (a) an X; (b) its definition -- because, (1) meaning is use; (2) the bearer and PN are different; and (c) the definition is in flux by virtue of the way the PN language game exists."

The Theory of Descriptions could be readily treated as providing a paradigm for rules explaining meaning as use, so (1) is a non sequitur. If it is a flawed paradigm, that is not because it cannot be treated as an explanation of use. Furthermore, even if it couldn't be so treated, Wittgenstein's remarks on meaning and use would not be in conflict because he explicitly says, "though not for all" (cases), and proper names could be viewed as an exception.

Finally, ellipsis and joking references to "law" notwithstanding, PI 43 is not a thesis to be used to knock down other theses. It is a set of truisms indicating alternative ways of understanding questions about meaning that will hopefully reduce some temptations to proffer theses at all.

(2) is very badly expressed. Of course the bearer and the name are different, but who would suggest otherwise? The name "George Washington" and the person George Washington couldn't be more different.

That the meaning of the name and the bearer of the name are different is something Wittgenstein would emphasize. But not against the Theory of Descriptions. Treating names as abbreviated descriptions is not at all the same as equating the meaning of a name with the bearer of that name.

The way that we may shift between using various descriptions in using a proper name would be a problem for some uses of the Theory of Descriptions, but not for others.

And this can be expressed like this: I use the name "N" without a fixed meaning. (But that detracts as little
from its usefulness, as it detracts from that of a table that it stands on four legs instead of three and so sometimes
wobbles.)

Should it be said that I am using a word whose meaning I don't know, and so am talking nonsense?--Say
what you choose, so long as it does not prevent you from seeing the facts. (And when you see them there is a good
deal that you will not say.)
(PI 79)

JPDeMouy

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2b.

Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Wed Feb 3, 2010 12:57 pm (PST)



(J)

... Just some comments on big points where I see "issues" (I have to type fast because I've got work to do): 

First, I think we are in agreement that W's position on PN's is thus: (1) PN's have sense; (2) bearers and names are separable; (3) meaning is use for PN's; (4) the language game of PN's are such that use is allowed to be indeterminate and is even allowed to alter some things after the package is delivered.  But where trouble arises is as follows: 

1. That use must ALWAYS be indeterminate or that sharp boundaries cannot be drawn. Is that your position? Because my position was to show that WHETHER names have bearers in accompaniment or not, or are sharp in boundary, is a function of the SENSE of name being used in the language maneuver. And I illustrated four such senses which I could imagine. They are: Point, Brand, Describe & Title. Let me further explain:

SHARP BOUNDARIES AND TITLES 
There is confusion on the issue of whether a name can have a "sharp boundary." You use Moses as the example to say (apparently) that it never can, but you neglect Exalibur and W's position on sharp boundaries generally. Surely the better view is that one CAN draw such a boundary, but that doing so is only home to its purposes, as all sharp boundaries are for family resemblance ideas. Although the Excalibur example isn't that good, I think it can illustrate the point. I take it that the whole reason why the blade can be shattered, yet the statement "Excalibur has a sharp blade," remain meaningful, is that "Excalibur" has come to take on the sense of a title or status (a set of rules) that is independent of the bearer.

Let's say it this way: If any name becomes more important than its bearer, it becomes a title or a status. These examples COULD include hyperbole, but need not. Example: Messy Marvin. The day he grows up one may rightfully say of him, "he's not Messy Marvin any longer." And this is because he no longer lives up to his rule (title). You seem to think that this is not a real example of a "name" or is just fun talking or something. I want to suggest that this does, in fact, belong to the family of names and is a sharpe boundary imposed for parochial reasons (it gets work done in the language game).

'Messy Marvin" functions in language the way Excalibur and Moses CAN.  One could rightly say of Moses, that if he did not save the Israelites, that he was not, in fact, "Moses." Imagine someone saying "Jesus is a lie," where it turned out that certain major things were untrue. In both of these examples, "Moses" and "Jesus' have become RULES. The only thing one who disagreed could say in response is: "I didn't mean that sense of Moses." "I meant the historical Moses." (You'll note this reply seems to have a bearer description in mind that makes use of branding and description)

DESCRIPTIONS, BRANDING AND POINTING
The difference between titles and descriptions is that the former operates as a rule (and turns PN's into a kind of jargon); the latter operates as a set of circumstances (attribute list). And so where the circumstance does not turn itself into a rule ("the man who lived down the road"), it never takes on the role of tautology. This is what you are not getting: I can make a name a tautology if I want to. The language game allows for that. Or I can make it an attribute list that allows me to supplement and amend after delivery. The language game allows that.

You also aren't getting this branding thing. I don't mean like brand names. I mean like branding a cow. Marking. Individuating. This is a specific behavior in the "naming language game." If I say, "Sally is DNA such and such," what I have done is to separate Sally from all the other humans or animals out there. Same as if I say, "Sally is SSN 2323232." Marking or branding are behaviors in the name game. That is a particular sense. The sense is 'Sally's marker." By "Sally," I sometimes mean her marker.

Pointing is very simple. Imagine a greeting. "Hi Mark. This is Jane." "Nice to meet you Jane." From Mark's standpoint, "Jane" is simply "that." The name simply says "pointer call." It's the same as if you say "the dog is Snoopy." You now know what mark or noise to say when you see "it."

INTEGRATION
I'm not against the idea that the four senses of names I have described are integrated. You are right that people might mix and match in complicated circumstances (e.g., identifying the historical Moses). But my point is that names involve four types of brain behaviors: point, mark, generalize (describe), and "tautologize" (status or rule).

I've go to run on the other points. Later on, I'd like to come back to the meaning-is-use point and where I think you are wrong about what W's view does to Russell.

Regards and thanks. 

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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2c.

Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "J D" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 9:57 pm (PST)



SW,

"That use must ALWAYS be indeterminate or that sharp boundaries cannot be drawn. Is that your position?"

Under most circumstances, names aren't indeterminate at all. And where they are, we can always draw an arbitrary boundary for some specific purpose. That doesn't mean with blocked all possibilities of indeterminacy.

"but you neglect Exalibur and W's position on sharp boundaries generally."

PI 39 is an elaboration of why we are tempted to the idea of simples such as is found in the Tractatus. And this view is then extensively critiqued.

"Surely the better view is that one CAN draw such a boundary, but that doing so is only home to its purposes,"

This is actually close to what I wrote above. And I have never denied it.

"Although the Excalibur example isn't that good,"

For the reasons indicated, you're right: it isn't.

"...I think it can illustrate the point. I take it that the whole reason why the blade can be shattered, yet the statement 'Excalibur has a sharp blade,' remain meaningful, is that 'Excalibur' has come to take on the sense of a title or status (a set of rules) that is independent of the bearer."

It may well never have had a bearer! (And no doubt, Wittgenstein was well aware of that point.)

"Let's say it this way: If any name becomes more important than its bearer, it becomes a title or a status."

I see nothing to be gained in speaking that way...

"These examples COULD include hyperbole, but need not. Example: Messy Marvin. The day he grows up one may rightfully say of him, 'he's not Messy Marvin any longer.' And this is because he no longer lives up to his rule (title). You seem to think that this is not a real example of a 'name' or is just fun talking or something. I want to suggest that this does, in fact, belong to the family of names and is a sharpe boundary imposed for parochial reasons (it gets work done in the language game)."

Nicknames are "proper names" in the sense that concerns logicians, albeit not in the sense of ordinary English.

The nickname may no longer be apt but may or may not persist nevertheless, as anyone whose ever tried to live down an embarrassing nickname can attest.

Don't forget that nicknames are also often ironic, as with guys named "Tiny", who may be slight of stature or quite large when they acquire the nickname.

I have no idea why you would think such a nickname to be "sharp boundary" though. Especially a nickname based on something so vague and variable as "messiness".

"'Messy Marvin' functions in language the way Excalibur and Moses CAN. One could rightly say of Moses, that if he did not save the Israelites, that he was not, in fact, 'Moses.' Imagine someone saying 'Jesus is a lie,' where it turned out that certain major things were untrue. In both of these examples, 'Moses' and 'Jesus' have become RULES. The only thing one who disagreed could say in response is: 'I didn't mean that sense of Moses.' 'I meant the historical Moses.' (You'll note this reply seems to have a bearer description in mind that makes use of branding and description)"

What possible sense does it have to speak of "the historical Moses" apart from whatever descriptions (mythological? historical?) we may have?

Again, Wittgenstein's choice of Moses for this example was deliberate.

"The difference between titles and descriptions is that the former operates as a rule (and turns PN's into a kind of jargon); the latter operates as a set of circumstances (attribute list)."

So "class valedictorian" is a rule but "the one who had the best grades in the class" is a "set of circumstances"?

"And so where the circumstance does not turn itself into a rule ('the man who lived down the road'), it never takes on the role of tautology. This is what you are not getting: I can make a name a tautology if I want to."

No.

You can't.

A name has no truth value, a fortiori it is not true in all possible states of affairs or true as a verbal explanation of a rule of grammar, or however you might wish to explicate "tautology".

I suspect you're saying that you can treat a proposition applying a particular description to a name as a rule of grammar. If that's what you mean, I have nowhere denied that.

I would deny that the ability to treat the description as a rule of grammar for the use of a name is limited to descriptions that we would normally call "titles" or that this "distinction" you seem to be trying to make is really relevant here. (And I find it nowhere in Wittgenstein's work, for whatever that's worth.)

"Messy Marvin is messy" is not like "Red apples are red", appearances notwithstanding. Nor is "Tiny is tiny."

Serial killers may be the best example of what you seem to have in mind. "The Unibomber". We might say, "The Unibomber is the author of this manifesto". ("Author" is a title.) Or, "The Unabomber is the person who sent such and such a bomb to such and such a victim" (which is not a title). And we might treat these as rules for deciding whether a particular suspect is the Unibomber. If a suspect is arrested and charged, then we'd say "the alleged Unabomber".

But it may have been that we discovered that the author of the manifesto was just some crank trying to ride the publicity of the person who bombed so and so. Then the author is not the Unibomber. Or it may be that the most publicized bombing or the one that prompted the nickname was in fact a copycat or perhaps someone who wanted tenure and, knowing of these bombings, decided to murder a colleague under cover of those bombings. So, the Unibomber didn't do the bombing that first brought his crimes to national attention.

"You also aren't getting this branding thing. I don't mean like brand names."

I hadn't supposed that. I'm not sure why you'd think that I did.

"I mean like branding a cow."

Yes. That was my understanding. And the reason I don't think it's an apt simile for your examples (DNA and SSNs) is that the former is not a social convention though we do carry it with us, while the latter is a convention but not something we carry with us. Tattoos worn in various cultures to mark status, kinship, and so forth, or imprinted in Nazi concentration camps or Russian prisons and even "Hello My Name is..." stickers and military dog tags would all be far more aptly compared to brands (and of course, some cultures practice branding literally). But the examples you gave don't seem at all fitting. And you seem to have simply ignored the various points about similarities and differences between various uses of DNA and SSNs.

"Marking. Individuating. This is a specific behavior in the 'naming language game.' If I say, 'Sally is DNA such and such,' what I have done is to separate Sally from all the other humans or animals out there."

Except for her identical twin, if she has one. (Undeniable possibility.) Or her clone, if that technology develops. (Certainly plausible.) And if gene therapy develops to the point where Sally's DNA can be radically altered? (Not beyond the realm of future possibility.) Or if Sally's body is replaced with various prostheses, by steps, including her brain being replaced in stages with inorganic materials able to perform those same functions? (Completely speculative SF but not logically excluded.)

"Same as if I say, 'Sally is SSN 2323232.'"

In what sense is that the same? Both of them make an identification more precise, as I previously acknowledged. But so does, "the tall, red-headed Sally," albeit not so precise, depending on how large a group of people we're dealing with. (It may be perfectly precise for a particular purpose.)

By the way, who speaks that way? Sally isn't a number. Sally is the person assigned such and such a number. Sally is not a DNA profile. Sally is the person whose DNA profile is such and such. And the rule for using "Sally" may be to apply that name to whoever has such and such DNA (unless she has an identical twin or...). And the rule may also say that we can substitute such and such SSN for the name "Sally".

"Marking or branding are behaviors in the name game. That is a particular sense. The sense is 'Sally's marker.' By 'Sally,' I sometimes mean her marker."

No. "Sally" is not the name of her marker. "Sally" is the name of a person. And the marker can be used in place of the name. And by "Sally", you sometimes mean, e.g. "the person assigned such and such a marker".

"Pointing is very simple."

Wow! And all the difficulties attending to the notion of ostensive definition that Wittgenstein uncovered?

"Imagine a greeting. 'Hi Mark. This is Jane.' 'Nice to meet you Jane.' From Mark's standpoint, 'Jane' is simply 'that.'"

Simply "that" what? In this context, the person to whom he is being introduced. But there's a whole lot more required in terms of "stage setting" to be able to learn to use a person's name!

"The name simply says 'pointer call.'"

Ouch! Um, you aren't making a deliberate computer science reference, are you? I'm hoping that was entirely inadvertent. If not, could you explain the comparison you're making? If it was inadvertent, feel free to disregard my query.

"It's the same as if you say 'the dog is Snoopy.' You now know what mark or noise to say when you see 'it.'"

I know how names are used and I know what a dog is and so I now now how to call to this dog or talk about this dog. I do things with names. I don't just blurt them out when I see their bearers. At least not typically.

"I'm not against the idea that the four senses of names I have described are integrated. You are right that people might mix and match in complicated circumstances (e.g., identifying the historical Moses). But my point is that names involve four types of brain behaviors: point, mark, generalize (describe), and 'tautologize' (status or rule)."

Why in Heaven's name are you calling these "brain behaviors"? Brains don't do these things. People (who presumably have brains) do these things. And what is bringing something that sounds vaguely neurological meant to contribute? Some of my other reservations are covered above and in my previous message.

"I've go to run on the other points. Later on, I'd like to come back to the meaning-is-use point and where I think you are wrong about what W's view does to Russell."

I'll try to be helpful in my responses.

JPDeMouy

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3a.

Re: [C] Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "kirby urner" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 3:49 pm (PST)



On Tue, Feb 2, 2010 at 9:18 PM, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@yahoo.com> wrote:

> (Kirby)
>
> .. I'm not exactly sure I follow. If a name is separate from its bearer --
> which it surely is -- the same rule for speaking about "the real" seem to
> obtain for speaking about the mythical. You would have to engage in one of
> four behaviors in the service of individuating: (a) point ("This is
> Aragorn'); (b) title ("Aragorn, son of whatshisname, is the one true King);
> (c) brand ("Aragorn is DNA profile such-and-such); or (d) describe ("Aragorn
> is yay tall with hair about down to here and a little scuzzy at times. Likes
> the outdoors).
>

If you're already clear that the same rules apply, i.e. adding a fictional
dimension doesn't really change the abc's of how one uses proper names, then
yes, nothing problematic enters the picture just because the designated
person, geographic place, and/or named vessel or spaceship, has no actual
existence in the world of past or present facts.

I think you might find the occasional amateurish philosophy that takes up
this matter of proper names, yet makes no allowances for the referents being
mythical.

Sometimes what happens with proper names is they're thought to be literal
(if I may use that as the opposite of mythical) and then it comes out later
that (all this time) the referent had no literal existence.

This verdict of "mythical" could be the outcome of sleuthing, detective work
i.e. we're trying to track down X, and we think we know who X is, but then
we end up concluding either:

(a) X never existed or
(b) we're simply not sure if X ever existed
(and if X did, how much of what we suppose about X is actually fictitious
e.g. there's the DNA record, but that turns out to most likely belong to
someone else...).

The above scenario sounds a lot like police work on one of those popular
prime time TV shows wherein all of the characters, plots, equipment, is a
made-for-TV fantasy.

Within the fictional TV show, the hero-sleuths attempt to track down X (some
proper name) and it turns out there's no such person X (the fact that the
heroes are also fictive is not a plot element in the show i.e. their
fictitious nature is "meta" to the storytelling -- we're suspending
disbelief and letting these actors be "real" in a theatrical context).

Taking an example from real life, when Oliver Stone made his movie 'JFK', he
cast Donald Sutherland as this "Man X" character who seemed to have some
inside scoop on that whole business. The movie was of course controversial,
as it advanced yet another thesis on that crowded scene already well stocked
with conspiracy theories.

People attempted to verify this or that aspect of the movie, and that
included wondering if there really was a 'Man X' or was that just a
screenwriter's device?

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=onks09EQyLY

Well, it turned out in this case that Oliver Stone was actually thinking of
a real person whom he'd had conversations with, one Col. Fletcher L. Prouty
(http://www.prouty.org/).

In the aftermath of the film's release, Oliver and "Man X" actually made
some joint appearances on panels (just once? many times? -- I'm recalling
some video) to answer questions from journalists and so forth.

But one could just as well imagine that "Man X" could have been a
screenwriter's invention. Different history in that case, i.e. in many
circles, a lot rides on whether something is "true" or not, and that
includes much intimate grammar around this concept of "existence" (as in
"no, I'm not just making this up").

Philosophical investigations into the meanings of proper names should
probably grapple explicitly with fictional cases. It's important to point
out that the grammar is similar enough to keep people guessing, in some
cases, as to whether the proper name in question associates with someone or
something that "exists" or "is real".

One might say that "the reality of" or "objective existence of" someone or
something is not critical to its having meaning i.e. is in some ways a quite
dispensable element, at least insofar as how the grammar is constructed.

Of course within this or that language game making use of proper names, it
may make all the difference whether "X" is "real" or not. I'd say that's a
"parochial concern" in the sense that it's not built in to the grammar.

> Names are the behaviors of pointing, describing, branding, or ascribing
> title for the purpose of individuating. Because the bearer of the name need
> not be real or even be in accord with your description -- see
> Wittgenstein's remarks on Excalibur, paragraph 39, in PI -- you needn't
> worry about the mythical. Even in the realm of the mythical, the name
> game function as it otherwise does.
>
>

You've grappled with the special case of "non-existence" in a thinking
manner, have already considered this issue and come out with a clear
verdict: the grammar around proper names is not concerned with "existence"
in the first instance.

There's a subcategory of language games in which the attributes of reality
enter in.

One may populate a universe with any number of properly named participants,
all of whom behave according to the same rules we apply in the "real world"
(as we call it).

But then once in a fictive world we're able to be more plastic about the
rules, more flexible. One might say the structural fabric is far less rigid
in fiction, yet still has its break points or coherence failures, when it
comes to running up against nonsense.

'Alice in Wonderland' plays along this border twixt sense and nonsense, as
does 'Finnegans Wake' I suppose one might say -- as does 'Logico Tractatus
Philosophicus' as does 'Philosophical Investigations'...

I'm glad we have these Wittgensteinian intersections here, a shared
cross-roads of sorts:

http://coffeeshopsnet.blogspot.com/2009/10/on-wittgensteins-philo.html

"I declare it's marked like a large chess-board!" Alice said at last. "There
ought to be some men moving about somewhere ? and so there are!" she added
in a tone of delight, and her heart began to beat quick with excitement as
she went on. "It's a great huge game of chess that's being played-all over
the world ? if this is the world at all, you know."

> It would be like saying: the way you language generally has to be changed
> when you enter fiction. Surely, genres and styles exist. But I would think
> the language game is pretty much the same thing no matter what.
>

That's pretty clear and I suppose I agree.

I'd say something like: the fictional realm has a low barrier to entry, as
you don't have to tweak the grammar really at all to subtract "existence"
from the equations. It goes away easily, thanks to our highly evolved
ability to sustain fictional realities using the same rules we use for the
real world.

However, once across that barrier, and into the fictive world, then new
possibilities kick in and the grammar may proceed to morph in ways we could
not accept or allow if trying to stay faithful to some special-case reality.

I appreciate this opportunity to refine our respective views. I assume
Kripke is likewise on board with fictional cases being somewhat trivially
distinct from the non-fictional. He writes about 'Nixon' quite a bit, as an
example of a proper name, but he could just as well write about 'Gandalf'
and may well have done so (I'm hardly a walking encyclopedia when it comes
to the full range of philosophical investigations already conducted in this
realm).

Rather than end with a sense of closure though, I want to raise another
issue.

The meaning of a proper name is very much colored by how it is spun (a
truism, just injecting a grammar with 'spin' as an operative term, in
accordance with many contemporary use cases).

For example John Nash, the Princeton-based mathematician who one a Nobel
prize, is also the subject of a popular movie 'A Beautiful Mind' directed by
Ron Howard and starring Russell Crowe.

I think it's obvious that the meaning of 'John Nash' has been affected,
spun, altered, put on a new trajectory, thanks to this fictional work. Then
I would say the same is obviously true for 'Richard Nixon' i.e. the meaning
of that name is not fixed or "nailed" as one might put it.

Overlays, new filters, continuing revelations, keep adding new spin.

So in that sense I might contend that the meaning of a proper name remains
unsettled and/or "up in the air" or "subject to revision" for an open-ended
period of time, another way of saying "remains subject to change in
principle, or in perpetuity" (sounds like some sort of legal document).

We might be getting into "judgment day" territory (important in
Wittgenstein).

It's not intrinsic to the meaning of a proper name that it be "settled" or
"fixed".

Do you rest easy with this formulation?

Perhaps what I'm saying here has the flavor of a thesis no one would
disagree with?

"Trivially the case" might be the verdict on Kirby's proffered observations.

Kirby

PS: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Quadray_coordinates now has a reference
into the
technical literature,

Urner, Kirby. "Teaching Object-Oriented Programming with Visual FoxPro."
*FoxPro Advisor* (Advisor Media, March, 1999), page 48 ff.

> Regards and thanks.
>
>
> Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
>
> Assistant Professor
>
> Wright State University
>
> Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
>
> SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
>
> Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html
>
>
>
3b.

Re: [C] Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Wed Feb 3, 2010 4:09 pm (PST)



(Kirby writes:)

"So in that sense I might contend that the meaning of a proper name remains unsettled and/or "up in the air" or "subject to revision" for an open-ended period of time, another way of saying "remains subject to change in principle, or in perpetuity" (sounds like some sort of legal document). ... It's not intrinsic to the meaning of a proper name that it be "settled" or "fixed." ... Do you rest easy with this formulation? "

=============================

... I do agree. I'm working on a paper, and I think just found the right way to say it. Here is what a proper name is: it is a set of instructions for bearer-assignment, amendable after shipment."

I'm trying to think of similes for games where a play is made that can be uncontroversially amended after the play is over. One might be Congress (motion to extend and revise remarks). Another might be Spades where going "blind nill" allows you to trade a card with a partner after looking at the hand. But these are poor comparisons. Perhaps the best is this: The Uniform Commercial Code (UCC) in contracts law allows for merchants who deal with one another to change the terms of their shipment uncontroversially after the bargain (contract) has already been made. Why? It makes capitalism work better. Business people deal "on the fly."

So it is with names. They arrive on delivery and provide bearer-assignment instructions. Yet, the shipper reserve the right to amend the instructions uncontroversially after arrival.

I want to stress, however, per my comments with J, that the bearer-assignment instructions come in the form of modalities. Those modes are: point, mark, generality, and tautology. You therefore get the package, deploy the mode or modes that assign the bearer, and then wait for the shipper's amendment, if elected.

That's what a name it.

Hail to Wittgenstein! Philosophy as liberation!         
 
Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

3c.

Re: [C] Re: Re: Proper Names --Wittgenstein, Russell, Kripke

Posted by: "kirby urner" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 6:15 pm (PST)



On Wed, Feb 3, 2010 at 4:09 PM, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@yahoo.com> wrote:
> (Kirby writes:)
>
> "So in that sense I might contend that the meaning of a proper name remains
> unsettled and/or "up in the air" or "subject to revision" for an open-ended
> period of time, another way of saying "remains subject to change in
> principle, or in perpetuity" (sounds like some sort of legal document). ...
> It's not intrinsic to the meaning of a proper name that it be "settled" or
> "fixed." ... Do you rest easy with this formulation? "
> =============================
>

(Sean replies:)
> ... I do agree. I'm working on a paper, and I think just found the right way
> to say it. Here is what a proper name is: it is a set of instructions for
> bearer-assignment, amendable after shipment."
>

You do seem to have a clear set of modalities going, for specifying in
what ways to "bind" a name to some object -- to use some shoptalk
from computer science. **

I think we should keep in the picture two essential ways in which a
name -> object relationship might be affected.

The object itself may change, or our perception of it does. It turns out
that X was not a real person, or that this suitcase, identified by luggage
tag and bar code, does not contain at all what we thought it did. In
these examples, the target remains the same, and yet has also
changed, perhaps drastically and in a way which strains the original
name->object binding (past the breaking point in some cases).

In Wittgenstein, you'll get the example of where you think King's College
is off to your right, then you suddenly realize it's right ahead. The
meaning of King's College has changed in that the target has moved,
if only in your perception.

Another way in which the name -> object relationship may change,
is if we discover that two different names were in fact bound to the
same object. It turns out the "Sam's sister" and "Mrs. Walker" are
really bound to the same person. That's a context thing of course,
as we have millions of identities using "Sam" and/or "Mrs. Walker",
which is why your "binding rules" are so critical. There's every
potential for missing the relationship i.e. naming the *wrong*
object -- lots of our investigations should delve into that possibility.

Sometimes changes to an object's attributes may be "devastating"
i.e. I think I know what I mean by X, and I've gone around telling
people that X is a real person, i.e. built right in to my definition of
X is that I'll be able to bind the name "X" to "somebody real". When
it turns out there is no X matching my description (I come to this
conclusion on my own), then I don't say "I still mean X, it's just that
X does not have the attribute of existing". On the contrary, I have to
say that my previous use of "X" is now meaningless, is null and
void. "I was just speaking nonsense" might be the confession.

I bring this up to add a wrinkle to the "amending" process. One
may change the name -> object relationship "from either side"
as it were. But one may also obliterate or disrupt the relationship.

Consider for example the proper name "Epcot". I'd say here we
have a good example of a persistent name -> object relationship,
not obliterated or disrupted, where there's nevertheless been
significant activity on both the name side and the object side.

Changes to name:

When the word was first coined, it was EPCOT and stood for
Experimental Prototype Community of Tomorrow. That was
Walt Disney's grand vision of what this new theme park would be
(in Orlando). In choosing to lowercase it to Epcot, the modality
was rebranding (changing the brand).

Changes to object:

The signature building, Spaceship Earth, was decorated with
a more retro skin or theme, a giant Mickey Mouse arm sprinkling
pixie dust.

That arm has since been removed, parts auctioned off on eBay
(says WIkipedia) while the theme ride inside, originally scripted by
Ray Bradbury, has been modernized under new sponsorship.

Name -> Object persistence:

In giving this example, I'm giving a sense of the interplay between
name and object. Both names and objects are subject to
revision, yet we might still claim to be dealing with "the same"
relationship throughout the revisionary process.

I also sense I'm retreating from any strict name->object nominalism,
which I associate with computer logic, Python's in particular, and
am going back to saying things like "everything as a signifier".

The Spaceship Earth ball is as much caught up in usage
patterns as is the moniker "Spaceship Earth", which has its
own trajectory in "semantic space" e.g. if "Global University" is
used as a rough synonym in some namespace -- language
game -- then that changes or "precesses" (spins) its meaning....

Adding the Mickey Mouse arm, then taking it away, changes
the meaning of the Spaceship Earth ball (as would destroying it)
in a way that's difficult to put one's finger on, but since when were
changes in meaning always easy to articulate (I'd like to say
"most change goes by without comment" and hope to be
understood).

In this sense of altering meaning by altering objects, one
might say "things are also names" or (more coherently)
"language" and "the world" are only distinct by convention,
not by divine intervention. Getting back to this cross-roads again...

http://coffeeshopsnet.blogspot.com/2009/10/on-wittgensteins-philo.html

Good to compare notes with ya.

Kirby

Related reading:
http://www.grunch.net/synergetics/docs/epnote1.html

** a language game:

In going:

a = 2

we're not saying "a equals 2" so much as "a binds to 2, is a name for
the 2 object".

The symbol "2" is likewise a name for the "2 object".

The symbol "=" is called "the assignment operator" and its purpose is
to bind names to objects.

two = 2 is akin to two -> 2.
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4.1.

Re: philosophy, physics, chemistry, and Justintruth's argument

Posted by: "J D" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 4:41 pm (PST)



Justin,

Just replying to answer some of your specific questions, re: periodocity, orbitals, and reduction, although these issues don't exhaust the range of issues just beginning to be considered in the emerging field of philosophy of chemistry.

From "The Case for Philosophy of Chemistry" by Serri and McIntyre

One very important form of explanation which pervades all areas of
chemistry, from teaching to frontier research, lies in talk of electron shells
or orbitals, as they are often called. The formation of bonds, acid-base
behavior, redox chemistry, photochemistry, reactivity studies, etc., are all
regularly discussed by reference to the interchange of electrons between
various kinds of orbitals.
This approach may at first sight seem to speak in favor of the epistemo-
logical reduction of chemistry to physics, since talk of electron shells is
thought to belong primarily to the level of atomic physics. However, a more
critical examination of the issues involved reveals no such underpinning
from fundamental physics. It emerges that explanations in terms of electron
orbitals, and indeed all talk of orbitals in chemistry, is not sanctioned by
our present understanding of quantum mechanics. The remarkable fact is
that at the most fundamental quantum mechanical level electronic orbitals
become ontologically redundant. Electronic orbitals simply do not exist
according to quantum mechanics, although they remain as a very useful
explanatory device. This result is embodied in the more fundamental ver-
sion of the Pauli Exclusion Principle, which is frequently forgotten at the
expense of the restricted and strictly invalid version of the Principle, which
does uphold the notion of electronic orbitals (Scerri 1991, 1995).
This situation implies that most explanations given in chemistry which
rely on the existence of electrons in particular orbitals are in fact "level
specific" explanations, which cannot be reduced to or underwritten by
quantum mechanics.18 Thus, a case has been demonstrated where the
explanation of what it is that we seek to know when we engage in chemical
explanation would seem to suggest that we eschew reductive explanations,
and support the explanatory autonomy of chemistry.

from "Philosophy of Chemistry?A New Interdisciplinary Field?" by Serri

How many of us
have experienced students' frustration when we give different
chemical explanations depending on the context in which one
and the same phenomenon is being discussed?

If one believes only in fundamental explanations, this
form of activity appears to be seriously mistaken. However,
as chemists we are also aware of the need to operate on many
levels and the fact that explanations can be genuinely level-
specific. Such approaches must be used very carefully. They
should not degenerate into the introduction of ad hoc explana-
tions that are invoked in the explanation of particular
chemical facts but cannot be generalized to other situations.

One example is the wide variety of explanations given for
the apparent orbital paradox concerning the relative occupation
and ionization of the 4s and 3d levels in the first transition
metal series. The paradox I allude to is that the 4s orbital
is preferentially occupied but also preferentially ionized.
Nobody has yet rationalized this situation at a level that might
be appropriate for teaching general chemistry. Most educators
and textbooks continue to argue that the 4s orbital is prefer-
entially occupied because it has a lower energy than 3d, in
spite of several articles published in this Journal that state
that the 4s orbital never has a lower energy than the 3d (9).

Another response, encountered particularly among theo-
eticians, is that this is a futile question because the concept
of orbitals ceases to refer to any objective entities in more
advanced calculations and can only be maintained at the level
of the Hartree?Fock approximation. I suggest that this kind
of response is just another way of expressing Dirac's famous
dictum whereby chemistry has been explained in principle
by quantum mechanics. Such a response amounts to evading
the issue, which is to try to obtain a consistent explanation
within an orbital approximation such as the Hartree?Fock
model, since within this regime the concept of an orbital is
well defined.

JPDeMouy

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5.1.

Re: Consciousness can collapse a wave function

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 9:42 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote:

> Dennett's account of consciousness can not explain how consciousness
can
> collapse a wave function

I trust you wrote the above Joe, in a larger context, which I hope we
can set aside so as to help understand just what the above claim is
asserting. It would help me if we discussed this apart from Dennett's
account.

My understanding is that a wave function can be described in physical
terms. Consciousness is typically not described physically. So if C can
collapse a wave function, then something not physical is causing a
change physically. Is that more or less correct?

Is this true? If one holds that every conscious act is accompanied by a
physical change (in the brain) then one could claim that something
physical was collapsing the wave function.

Thanks,

bruce

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6.1.

Re: A material cause of consciousness

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Feb 3, 2010 9:58 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Justintruth <wittrsamr@...> wrote:

> ...but as to the issue of what causes subjectivity
> we have known that it occurs from biological reproduction for a long
> time and so there is definitely a material cause even though we don't
> know the detail.

For the sake of discussion, let's say we found a certain set of a
person's brain cells (and only those brain cells) when "fired up" was
always associated with the person (to all appearances) being conscious
-- and when those cells failed to fire, the person (to all appearances)
was not conscious. This might prompt us to say "these type of cells"
cause consciousness.

Exactly, what would these cells be causing? And what would the
relationship between the consciousness caused along physical principles
and the person who was experiencing, sorting out, his consciousness?

bruce

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