[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 106

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 13 Jan 2010 10:44:22 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (19 Messages)

Messages

1a.

A Statement of Incompatibilities

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 3:13 am (PST)



SWM wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>SWM wrote:

>>>Freedom of will is another and different issue and requires unpacking
>>>on its own terms.

>>what needs unpacking now is the metaphor Dennett uses to describe the
>>true state of the self (which admittedly thinks of itself as a
>>causally effective agent). Dennett says that the self (that narrative
>>center of gravity that claims to be an agent) is like the press
>>secretary who is out of the decision-making loop.

>>how can the out-of-the-loop press secretary be anything other than
>>epiphenomenal?

>By presuming that the self (consciousness in this case) is
>multi-layered and that the "press secretary" isn't the bottom line
>agent. That doesn't mean there isn't an agential aspect to the
>process-based system in the brain that constitutes the consciousness.
>It just means that all aspects of the agential system are not equal.

is this Dennett's theory or Mirsky's?

in either case, the question is whether the causally effective aspect of
the human individual is some part of the brain or the narrative center
of gravity constructed by some part (not necessarily the same part) of
the brain.

>>how can a narrative center of gravity be causally effective at
>>anything?

>See above.

what was above didn't explain how a literary fiction can be causally
effective. indeed, Dennett seems to be saying that it is the *brain*
that is causally effective. that would clearly imply that the narrative
center of gravity is completely epiphenomenal.

>>But first let me say that Dennett's account does not imply
>>epiphenomenalism if by that you mean that mind has no effect on the
>>world but merely goes along for the ride.

that's as good a definition of epiphenomenalism as any.

>>Since Dennett's model is that there is no separate realm of mind,
>>only a particular realm of physical interactions which happen to have
>>the features of subjectiveness, mind and the physical behaviors of the
>>brain are seen to being part of the same phenomenon (though expressed
>>in both objectively observable and subjectively apprehendable ways).

it sounds like Dennett is posing as an identity theorist to avoid
exposure as a property dualist; but, let's set that issue aside for now.

at the moment, we're focusing on whether Dennett's philosophy or a
Dennett-consistent philosophy is epiphenomenal; and, what you are saying
sounds like a clear confession that it is.

if there are physical interactions only then, if anything is causally
effective, it is something physical --- even if the center of narrative
gravity steps up to take credit for it.

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

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http://what-am-i.net
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1b.

V. S.  Ramachandran's Contribution to Understanding Consciousness

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 7:59 am (PST)



Responding to Joe re: Dennett -

--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote:
<snip>

> >>how can the out-of-the-loop press secretary be anything other than
> >>epiphenomenal?
>
> >By presuming that the self (consciousness in this case) is
> >multi-layered and that the "press secretary" isn't the bottom line
> >agent. That doesn't mean there isn't an agential aspect to the
> >process-based system in the brain that constitutes the consciousness.
> >It just means that all aspects of the agential system are not equal.
>
> is this Dennett's theory or Mirsky's?
>

It's my reading of what Dennett means. However, I would not swear he would say the same or say it as I have said it (and I don't recall his precise words in Consciousness Explained or elsewhere concerning this). After all, my comfort with his model doesn't hinge on his arguments for it but on my own conclusions, reached after considering Searle's CRA over a number of years. When I finally read Dennett's Consciousness Explained I was struck by how much it accorded with what I had come to conclude was the proper answer to Searle's argument about the implications of the Chinese Room scenario.

> in either case, the question is whether the causally effective aspect of
> the human individual is some part of the brain or the narrative center
> of gravity constructed by some part (not necessarily the same part) of
> the brain.
>

On a Dennettian model (and one can say it's certainly not unique to Dennett -- I've recently finished reading Ramachandran's Phantoms in the Brain, which basically presents a model like this albeit without Dennett's explicit computational component, and, as we have seen, on this list, Stanislas Dehaene seems to have a similar view), the elements of mind consist of many different functionalities which coalesce into recognizable features at the level of personal observation (introspection). At a deep level lots of things are going on to which we don't have introspective access. As Ramachandran puts it, we have multiple zombies operating in our brain, below the conscious level. As Dehaene suggests (though Ramachandran doesn't go this far -- he is eschewing comprehensive theorizing in favor of empirical observations) what produces the experience of consciousness may just be a certain "global" level of operations of these various brain processes that is achieved for some of these operations (or their combinations) but not others.

The "self" (for many, including Ramachandran) is rather like a composite of different elements -- it consists of many different combinations. On such a view, the idea that some aspects of the self, of our mental life, are more salient or more empowered than others is perfectly sensible. It just challenges the idea that, at the core of consciousness, mind, there is a simple element or constituent that is pure consciousness, set apart from everything else, some untouchable thing that makes the experiential parts of mind we normally think of in connection with being a subject in the universe possible.

> >>how can a narrative center of gravity be causally effective at
> >>anything?
>
> >See above.
>
> what was above didn't explain how a literary fiction can be causally
> effective. indeed, Dennett seems to be saying that it is the *brain*
> that is causally effective. that would clearly imply that the narrative
> center of gravity is completely epiphenomenal.
>

I would suggest that is a misreading of him. What he is saying is that the mind is a complex of brain events which, in a manner much like the way an orchestra operates, produce the "music" of being conscious. On such a view, the various referents we have in mind when we use a word like "self" will not always be quite the same. Ramachandran distinguishes between the "embodied self", the "passionate self", the "executive self", the "mnemonic self", the "unified self", the "vigilant self", and the "conceptual and the social self" (which last two he links). pages 247-253

This viewpoint suggests that the "press secretary" you are referring to is just one aspect of a very complex arrangement of mental features and proclivities, all of which are outcomes of various brain operations at various levels of integration. That some aspects of what we think we are are better understood as observer rather than executor doesn't mean we don't have executive capabilities or aren't part of a larger complex with such capabilities. The point is to replace the idea that mind, consciousness, is what it is because of a core constituent that is somehow pure subject. Being a subject is a result, on this view, of a complex of processes found in certain kinds of brains when they are in good operating order and operating at capacity.


> >>But first let me say that Dennett's account does not imply
> >>epiphenomenalism if by that you mean that mind has no effect on the
> >>world but merely goes along for the ride.
>
> that's as good a definition of epiphenomenalism as any.
>
> >>Since Dennett's model is that there is no separate realm of mind,
> >>only a particular realm of physical interactions which happen to have
> >>the features of subjectiveness, mind and the physical behaviors of the
> >>brain are seen to being part of the same phenomenon (though expressed
> >>in both objectively observable and subjectively apprehendable ways).
>
> it sounds like Dennett is posing as an identity theorist to avoid
> exposure as a property dualist; but, let's set that issue aside for now.
>

I suppose one can apply the notion of "identity" as long as the previous caveats I have introduced are observed. If, on the other hand, you want to disregard those caveats then I, at least, would not accept the "identity" nomenclature. I don't speak for Dennett, of course.

As to the reference to "exposure as a property dualist" that is just odd. As I have said in earlier posts, dualism is dualism on my view (and here I'm in agreement with Searle) when it implies an ontological divide. If it is only about "properties" and "properties" is understood as what I mean by "features" or "characteristics" (see my earlier explications), then this view isn't dualism at all. Indeed, given the multiplicity of "properties" in the universe, there is no way to confine this to "dualism" (a split between two distinct types). After all, even our various mental features have very different characteristics. More important, I think, is mode of access and that is only a "property" in a very limited way (though even there, I suppose, we could use "property" as the term of distinction).

> at the moment, we're focusing on whether Dennett's philosophy or a
> Dennett-consistent philosophy is epiphenomenal; and, what you are saying
> sounds like a clear confession that it is.
>

Does it? How odd. To me it sounds like what I said, that the idea of consciousness doesn't require a notion of a core consciousness that is found by peeling away some outer layers. Rather we can explain it as a complex system which has many constituents, some of which have an executive role and some an observational/reporting one, etc.

When I sit at my computer and formulate what I want to say to you and hit the keyboard to get it on the screen (before hitting the send button), I am choosing what I am doing, what I want to say. It isn't just randomly generated or driven by some inner compulsion I have (though who knows, eh?).

Yet as my fingers fly over the keys on the board, I don't think about them (though I once had to, before I learned to type with facility). I don't pay any attention to how they find and strike the right keys to get the message on the screen properly or how doing that coordinates with my thinking process. Still I am making them move and, if I do start to think about THAT, I start to find I miss the keys, slow down, make mistakes.

When my wife calls downstairs to me to ask what I'm busy with and I answer her, I don't consciously think about forming the sounds in my throat that come out of my mouth in answer or even about forming the words in my mind that my vocalizations are conveying. I just answer. I just act.

The brain is doing lots of things and sometimes some of the things we have to think about when we first learn those things, we cease to think about once we have learned them. If my wife were calling down to me in Chinese I would have to learn the relevant dialect of that language first to understand her question and then to answer and that would be a laborious process. (I have a favorite Cantonese style restaurant where I always try to pick up a little Chinese in bantering with the manager but, being only an occasional speaker, I often forget and, even if I don't, I have to think a moment, translate something in my head and remember the right combination of sounds along with the right inflections when I speak. A very laborious process.) If I ever manage to learn though, we can assume it would no longer require much thinking, much effort on my part, to answer, no more, at least, than it now takes me to answer questions in English.

The point is that the brain is an organ of many parts and many functions and that being conscious, having a mind, involves the interplay of a broad range of them and is not to be found in some central core waiting to be discovered once the layers of the onion have been peeled away.


> if there are physical interactions only then, if anything is causally
> effective, it is something physical --- even if the center of narrative
> gravity steps up to take credit for it.
>
> Joe
>
>

I think Searle is right here (and, for that matter, Ramachandran and Dennett and quite a few others). The mistake in what you say above arises in this insistence that there is a divide between the physical and the mental. There is certainly a subjective aspect and an objective aspect to experience but it's a mistake to conclude from this that there is an ontological divide here. This is how Ramachandran puts it (starting on page 228):

". . . many people find it disturbing that all the richness of our mental life -- all our thoughts, feelings, emotions, even what we regard as our intimate selves -- arises entirely from the activity of little wisps of protoplasm in the brain. How is this possible? How could something as deeply mysterious as consciousness emerge from a chunk of meat inside the skull? The problem of mind and matter, substance and spirit, illusion and reality, has been a major preoccupation of both Eastern and Western philosophy for millennia, but very little of lasting value has emerged . . ."

"Except for a few eccentrics (called panpsychists) who believe everything in the universe is conscious, including things like anthills, thermostates, and Formica tabletops, most people now agree that consciousness arises in brains and not in spleens, livers, pancreases or any other organ. This is already a good start. But I will narrow the scope of inquiry even further and suggest that consciousness arises not from the whole brain but rather from certain specialized brain circuits that carry out a particular style of computation. . . ."

"The central mystery of the cosmos, as far as I'm concerned, is the following: Why are there always two parallel descriptions of the universe -- the first-person account ('I see red') and the third-person account ('He says that he sees red when certain pathways in his brain encounter a wavelength of six hundred nanometers')? How can these two accounts be so utterly different yet complementary? Why isn't there only a third-person account, for according to the objective worldview of the physicist and the neuroscientist, that's the only one that really exists? (Scientists who hold this view are called behaviorists.) Indeed, in their scheme of 'objective science,' the need for a first-person account doesn't even arise -- implying that consciousness doesn't exist. But we all know perfectly well that can't be right. I'm reminded of the old quip about the behaviorist who, just having made passionate love, looks at his lover and says, 'Obviously that was good for you, but was it good for me?' This need to reconcile the first-person and third-person accounts of the universe (the "I" versus the "he" or "it" view) is the single most important unsolved problem in science. Dissolve this barrier, say the Indian mystics and sages, and you will see that the separation between self and nonself is an illusion -- that you are really One with the cosmos.

"Philosophers call this conundrum the riddle of qualia or subjective sensation. How can the flux of ions and electrical currents in little specks of jelly -- the neurons in my brain -- generate the whole subjective world of sensations like red, warmth, cold or pain? By what magic is matter transmuted into the invisible fabric of feelings and sensations? This problem is so puzzling that not everyone agrees it is even a problem . . ."

"For centuries philosophers have assumed that this gap between brain and mind poses a deep epistemological problem -- a barrier that simply cannot be crossed, but does it follow that it can never be corssed? I'd like to argue that there is in fact no such barrier, no great vertical divide in nature between mind and matter, substance and spirit. Indeed, I believe that this barrier is only apparent and that it arises as a result of language. This sort of obstacle emerges when there is any translation from one language to another.

"How does this idea apply to the brain and the study of consciousness? I submit that we are dealing here with two mutually unintelligible languages. One is the language of nerve impulses -- spatial and temporal patterns of neuronal activity that allow us to see red, for example. The second language, the one that allows us to communicate what we are seeing to others, is a natural spoken tongue like English or German or Japanese -- rarified, compressed waves of air traveling between you and the listener. Both are languages in the strict technical sense, that is they are information-rich messages that are intended to convey meaning, across synapses between different brain parts in one case and across the air between two people in the other.

"The problem is that I can tell you, the color-blind superscientist [a reference to an earlier example I have excluded in this redaction], about my qualia (my experience of seeing red) only by using a spoken language. But the ineffable "experience" itself is lost in the translation . . ."

"But what if I were to skip spoken language as a medium of communication and instead hook a cable of neural pathways (taken from tissue culture or another person) from the color-processing areas in my brain directly into the color-processing regions of your brain . . .? . . . This is a far-fetched scenario, but there is nothing logically impossible about it."

"This scenario demolishes the philosophers' argument that there is an insurmountable logical barrier to understanding qualia. In principle, you can experience another creature's qualia . . ."

"The key here is that the qualia problem is not unique to the mind-body problem. It is no different in kind from problems that arise in any translation, and thus there is no need to invoke a great division in nature between the world of qualia and the material world. There is only one world with lots of translation barriers. If you can overcome them, the problems vanish."

[End excerpts]

SWM

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1c.

Re: A Statement of Incompatibilities

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 6:28 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote:

> what needs unpacking now is the metaphor Dennett uses to describe the
> true state of the self (which admittedly thinks of itself as a
causally
> effective agent). Dennett says that the self (that narrative center of
> gravity that claims to be an agent) is like the press secretary who is
> out of the decision-making loop.
>
> how can the out-of-the-loop press secretary be anything other than
> epiphenomenal?
>
> how can a narrative center of gravity be causally effective at
anything?

The questions that have preoccupied me forever. However, it seems to be
that Dennett's self is "causally effective" because it is causally
produced by the brain. The "press secretary" is not out of the loop. It
simple does whatever the brain causes it to do.

bruce

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2.

Internal versus External

Posted by: "void" rgoteti@xxxxxxxxx   rgoteti

Tue Jan 12, 2010 5:34 am (PST)



Uncertainty about the future Finally, even in games of perfect information, where
we know our position in the game tree at any time, we have 'forward ignorance' of
the future course of play. Nash equilibrium makes some predictions, but in general,
we are in a partial deliberation about future actions and choices, based on beliefs
about ourselves and others. There is a flourishing literature on this, involving belief
revision and counterfactual reasoning (cf. Stalnaker 1999). The resulting game logics put philosophical logic on top of the mathematical logic of game structure. Such
issues, too, make sense for studying logic games, but we forego them here.
This paper has shown how logic games can be seen systematically as a very
interesting subclass of the totality of all games, raising new issues of game logic
beyond standard game theory precisely because they are somewhat better delineated.
On the other hand, the study of logic games would also benefit from some systematic
importation of ideas from general game theory. And finally, either way, we think all
this supports the idea of viewing logic as a study of the dynamics, rather than just
statics, of statement, reasoning, and communication.

http://www.illc.uva.nl/, University of Amsterdam

3a.

Re: Consciousness, QM and the Vacuous Question

Posted by: "Cayuse" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 8:02 am (PST)



Joseph Polanik wrote:
> I suggest that you take a look at a paper by Suarez, Nonlocal
> "Realistic" Leggett Models Can be Considered Refuted by the
> Before-Before Experiment.
> http://www.quantumphil.org/SuarezFOOP201R2.pdf

The results of this experiment seem to me to be telling us something
about our model of time -- they could be interpreted as indicating
that both instantiations of consciousness inhabit the same 'now', even
though our mathematical model has their respective observations being
non-contemporaneous in most reference frames. This, along with the
fact that they are correlated with the same reduction, could be taken
as indicating that both instantiations of consciousness are connected in
some manner. Do you see any argument against this line of reasoning?

It's just a shame that Suarez sees fit to foist his metaphysical opinions
on us (re: god and free will) by appealing to this "back door" that
QT keeps open -- I really don't see what the notion of free will has
to do with physics. Nonetheless, you have my gratitude for bringing
this work to my attention.

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4.

Strong, Weak and Indeterminate AI

Posted by: "SWM" swmaerske@xxxxxxxxx   swmaerske

Tue Jan 12, 2010 9:01 am (PST)



On the AI philosophy list someone posted this link a few days ago:

http://www.dailymail.co.uk/sciencetech/article-1240410/The-real-Frankenstein-exp\eriment-One-mans-mission-create-living-mind-inside-machine.html

The link takes you to a website with an article from a British paper on an AI project being conducted in Switzerland. The project is described as an effort to create a computer based consciousness by simulating, through programming, the operations of a brain in every detail.

Unlike some AI efforts, which aim to replicate the functions the brain performs using computational processes on computers to do whatever it is brains do, THIS project aims to produce a fully functional model of a brain in virtual reality, to mimic the interrelations of the brain's parts. The idea is that such a simulated brain would end up being conscious just like real world physical brains (those that are capable of being conscious when in good working order and running at sufficient capacity, of course).

This raises an interesting question. Searle has defined "weak AI" as programming computers to simulate minds, i.e., modeling them (in whole or part). Stanislas Dehaene, a neuroscientist studying how brains achieve consciousness, has indicated that he uses just such modeling to check his ideas as he formulates theses about how brains do what they do. But he doesn't propose that his models are themselves conscious or that they could be. In this he is using computer modeling precisely as what Searle characterizes as "weak AI" (although his approach to explaining brains as the causal agents of minds is consistent with the so-called "strong AI" project). But the scientist in the project described in the referenced article (I forget his name) is certainly pushing for more.

If what he is doing is best understood as "weak AI" (modeling), his expectations for it are actually consistent with what Searle calls "strong AI" (producing real consciousness synthetically on computational platforms -- computers). So what is it that we should call what he is doing? Is Searle's distinction a distinction as to aims only or, also, as to means?

The researcher referenced in the article is clearly doing simulative modeling (which according to Searle is just "weak AI") while his aim is to obtain a result consistent with Searle's "strong AI".

Insofar as this researcher aims to model all relevant aspects of brain activity to create a virtual brain (hoping a virtual mind will follow), he is invoking an approach intended to go beyond mere simulation of the kind Dehaene is making use of and which Searle says is what he means by "weak AI".

So is the effort to simulate a brain in virtual reality "strong AI" or "weak AI" following the Searlean rubric?

SWM

5a.

Film about the Tractatus?

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Tue Jan 12, 2010 10:15 am (PST)



Anyone know anything about a 1992 Hungarian film called Wittgenstein Tractatus, made by Peter Forgacs? One assumes it's a classroom sort of thing and not a movie in the theatrical sense? I had never heard of it and was just wondering.

Link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wittgenstein_Tractatus  
 
Regards

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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5b.

Re: [C] Film about the Tractatus?

Posted by: "kirby urner" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 10:35 am (PST)



On Tue, Jan 12, 2010 at 10:13 AM, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@yahoo.com> wrote:
> Anyone know anything about a 1992 Hungarian film called Wittgenstein Tractatus, made by Peter Forgacs? One assumes it's a classroom sort of thing and not a movie in the theatrical sense? I had never heard of it and was just wondering.
>
> Link: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wittgenstein_Tractatus
>
> Regards
>
> Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
> Assistant Professor
> Wright State University
> Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
> SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
> Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html
>

I am not aware of this movie.

However, I have recently come across a complete musical rendition of
the Tractatus.

A gentleman in Vienna brought it to my attention.

Here is some background information:

"""
M.A. Numminen has not belonged to any specific label after Love
Records was dissolved in 1979 following a bankruptcy. His own Forward!
label only publishes records when Numminen can afford it; after all,
he both owns and finances the company. Nevertheless, in 1989 Numminen
accomplished a valuable cultural act by recording and publishing anew
his Tractacus Suite to commemorate the centennial of Ludwig
Wittgenstein's birth.
However, the last piece in the suite, a spunky march Wovon mann nicht
sprechen kann ('What we cannot speak about we must consign to
silence'), was not re-recorded. Instead, Numminen used its original
version, recorded in 1967 with the Sohon Torwet brass band at Turku
University student café. Routledge, the British publishing house which
has published several Wittgenstein's works, became interested in
Numminen's new product. As a consequence, the new Tractatus Suite was
sold and promoted by Routledge in London as well as in its 1990
catalogue. The introduction to the suite goes like this: "... While
majoring in sociolinguistics, Mr. Numminen in his student days also
delved into philosophy under the tutorship of Prof. Eric Stenius, an
authority on Wittgenstein..." The General Form of a Truth-Function,
one of the Tractatus Suite songs, was accompanied by a self-made
low-budget music video. The video has been reviewed in various short
film festivals both in Finland and Germany. M.A. Numminen and Pedro
Hietanen have also created a duo version of The Tractatus Suite. In
the duo version the fifth song is replaced by the music video. The duo
version has been performed several times around Europe, for example
during the Vienna Festival in Vienna, Austria.
"""{

Links:

http://dl.dropbox.com/u/2016850/the_world_.mp3 (full English version,
link may be transitory)

http://www.youtube.com/watch?v=57PWqFowq-4 (see above text for an explanation)

Kirby
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5c.

Re: Film about the Tractatus?

Posted by: "Cayuse" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 11:22 am (PST)



http://forgacspeter.hu/english/films/Wittgeinstein+Tractatus/28

Sean Wilson wrote:
> Anyone know anything about a 1992 Hungarian film called Wittgenstein
> Tractatus, made by Peter Forgacs? One assumes it's a classroom sort
> of thing and not a movie in the theatrical sense? I had never heard
> of it and was just wondering.
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5d.

Re: Film about the Tractatus?

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Tue Jan 12, 2010 12:38 pm (PST)



...yikes!
 
SW

http://forgacspeter.hu/english/films/Wittgeinstein+Tractatus/28

Sean Wilson wrote:
> Anyone know anything about a 1992 Hungarian film called Wittgenstein
> Tractatus, made by Peter Forgacs? One assumes it's a classroom sort
> of thing and not a movie in the theatrical sense? I had never heard
> of it and was just wondering. 

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6.

Actual Movie Footage of Wittgenstein

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Tue Jan 12, 2010 12:35 pm (PST)



... as I understand the matter (which is not well), the first movie camera was developed in the very late 1800s. Wittgenstein's family was quite wealthy. Does any actual movie footage of Wittgenstein exist? By the 1930s, movie film is widely around, isn't it? I mean, aren't home movies a regular occurrence by this time (I don't know)?

I'm just wondering if there is any actual footage out there.   
 
Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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7a.

Metaphysical Versus Mystical

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Tue Jan 12, 2010 3:41 pm (PST)




I'm confused about an aspect of Wittgenstin's Tractarian thought. Particularly, the part that concerns the status of mystical/metaphysical statements. I had previously thought that there were two levels of "bastardized" sentences. There was the nonsensical, and there was the stuff that had to be passed over in silence (but could still be shown). I had thought that metaphysical assertions were treated as "nonsense," but that mystical assertions required only silence.  In other words, one is sort of cast off to hell but the other is at least allowed to remain in the intellectual closet (a sort of "don't-ask-don't tell," or a purgatory, if you will).       

But now that I review this again, I'm having trouble actually finding proof of it in the text. Wittgenstein tells us in 6.53, that if someone wanted to say something metaphysical, one should demonstrate that "he had given no meaning to certain signs in his propositions." The suggestion is that metaphysical asserts are meaningless. This is square with the intro, which says:

"This book will, therefore, draw a limit to thinking, or rather - not to thinking, but to the _expression_ of thoughts; for, in order to draw a limit to thinking we should have to be able to think both sides of this limit (we should therefore have to be able to think what cannot be thought). .... The limit can, therefore, only be drawn in language and what lies on the other side of the limit will be simply nonsense" (27).

Now, then he says, Ethics is transcendental (6.421) and does not lie in the world (which is why you can't talk about it). The solution of the riddle of life in space and time lies outside space and time (6.4312). How the world is, is completely indifferent for [God]. God does not reveal himself in the world (6.432).
We can speak of how the world is, but not that it is. (6.44) . There is indeed the inexpressible. This shows itself; it is the mystical. (6.522). 

QUESTIONS:

1. Am I wrong to see "nonsense" as being something more severe than "the unspeakable."  (That there are two levels here, like felony and misdemeanor, or 1st degree and 2nd degree)? (gradation logic).

2. If I am not wrong, could someone please give me an example of a sentence that is nonsense versus one that simply requires silence? This, in essence, would be giving the difference between the mystical and the metaphysical, if there is such a difference. (I could be wrong here too)

My sense would be this:

1. Mystical that requires silence: God exists. The Earth is Good. You should be kind to one another.

2. Metaphysical that is nonsense:  The chair has an essence [where that means a spirity form]. Justice has a soul. Reality is in your head [where that means the tree is imagined]. (Can you give me more examples?)   

Much thanks.
  
Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
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7b.

Re: Metaphysical Versus Mystical

Posted by: "J D" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 4:09 pm (PST)



SW,

These are excellent questions and my suspicion is that Wittgenstein, who spoke of "grave mistakes" in this work as you know, may not have had a clear answer to this question.

However, I would suggest that this might be a start: distinction between the question of whether there is a logical distinction between different sentences and the question of whether we ought to respond to them in the same way.

Perhaps we could say, consistent with the Tractatus, "nonsense is nonsense" but also that we can sometimes recognize - by certain words, by context, by the attitude and manner of the person uttering them - that some nonsense is not only serious but also that it responds to something deeper than mere confusion. The logical question of nonsense is then severed from the psychological question of motivation. And on that basis, we could approach the question of whether "nonsense!" is warranted as a rebuke or merely a report of the logical situation.

JPDeMouy

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7c.

!!!Re: Re: Metaphysical Versus Mystical

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Tue Jan 12, 2010 5:06 pm (PST)



.. here's the way I understand this. I think this is right. (Tell me, J, if you agree):

1. "The unicorn is in the barn," is NOT nonsense, it is FALSE. And it is therefore a proposition.

2. "The unicorn has two purple souls" is nonsense, but not because of arguments about mixing grammars (mixing color words with spirit words, which is a red herring here). It is nonsense because of the simple fact that: (a) the matter cannot be pictured in the world; (b) it is not an analytic statement in service of something picturable; and (c) does not, therefore, SAY anything. Furthermore (more controversial): (d) it is not a matter that purports to reside in the "netherworld" because the idea doesn't show or reveal itself to the form of life [see below].   
 
3. "God has unicorns in heaven." This is seemingly NOT nonsense. It is simply unspeakable. This is because it comes from another realm (mystical).  The same is true of the statement, "Dance is beautiful," or "The good is being happy."    

However, note that the statement "God has unicorns in heaven" may not be given the status of unspeakable merely because God as a subject matter is referring to an extra-worldly place. It's not grammar that does it (the grammar of "God.").  What he means by the transcendental "showing" itself, I think, is something that is deeply felt. And so if I say in despair, "I feel God" -- and if I am devout about it -- I am saying something that has ground in my feeling. This is important because feelings of this sort periodically show itself in the form of life. But it does not ever render itself capable of being true or false. (The feeling might be true or false, but not the statement it births. For example, "I feel God" would be false where the person is lying and feels no sensations. Maybe he is just play-acting. But where the person feels sensations and attributes the affect to "God," whether God had been "it" would not be something true or false).

Hence, this is how the transcendental shows itself, but cannot be the subject of propositions. So if you say anything metaphysical from a sense of AFFECT -- "dance is wonderful" -- you have not stated a proposition, but have talked about something that shows itself in the form of life. The only confusing part about this is why it requires silence ??!!!  I guess because Wittgenstein is trying to formulate a theory that says what proper speaking/thinking is. And proper thinking is only yes/no stuff. And if you have feeling-affect metaphysics -- the mystical -- you have something that simply cannot be asserted.

The only other thing that I note with interest: under this view, it seems that certain kinds of continental philosophy are put wholesale in the toilet, but other kinds -- say, Kiekegaard -- are put in the closet. Do you agree, J? Plato & Co get shown the trash can (regarding metaphysics), but Kiekegaard gets put under the bed? (Of course, the bizarre thing is that Kierkegaard can't write anything and you can't read it, at least not if either is doing philosophy properly, which is the equivalent of thinking properly).

I don't think this system works!

(P.S. -- let me know if you think I have misunderstood)

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
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7d.

Re: [C] Re: Re: Metaphysical Versus Mystical

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Tue Jan 12, 2010 5:15 pm (PST)



J: I don't mean to abuse your presence here, but if you have time, tell me what you think of this simile. I put it in the paper I am working on. It concerns summarizing the essential idea that Wittgenstein has about LANGUAGE in the tractatus. I think the simile is good and does the job. Looking to see how it hits you:

Perhaps Wittgenstein´s early approach to language might be summarized with the following simile. Imagine a blurry picture that did not "show" something that could be verified with eyesight, but where the reality that is the subject of the picture was not, in fact, blurred or obstructed. In other words, the person´s picture was simply poor or ill-taken (and was not at attempt at abstract art or something similar). In a certain sense, a picture of this sort would be useless. It would be cast aside among the other pictures that show the world properly. For early Wittgenstein, language has this sort of ethic. Assertions in language that do not picture an otherwise clear reality are meaningless, unless the reality itself is blurred, making the picture accurate, but depicting only the mystical. Although an accurate picture of a blurred nothing was not "meaningless" - because it showed its subject - it made no sense to speak of it, because the
depiction was hidden from the start.

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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7e.

Re: [C] !!!Re: Re: Metaphysical Versus Mystical

Posted by: "Sean Wilson" whoooo26505@xxxxxxxxx   whoooo26505

Tue Jan 12, 2010 8:00 pm (PST)



... here's the basic problem as i see it for Tractarian Wittgenstein.  It's the picture theory. Everything hinges upon it. This sounds cliche, but consider the book's main point (as told by Wittgenstein)"
 
"This book will, therefore, draw a limit to thinking, or rather - not to thinking, but to the _expression_ of thoughts; for, in order to draw a limit to thinking we should have to be able to think both sides of this limit (we should therefore have to be able to think what cannot be thought). ... The limit can, therefore, only be drawn in language and what lies on the other side of the limit will be simply nonsense" (27).

Think about that. In order to know what can't be thought, we would have to be able to entertain it. We can't do that. Therefore, we can only draw the limit in language. KEY PREMISE: Because language's purpose is to mirror the world, it's only proper use is to picture reality (or perform logic upon picturing statements).

Once you take away the picture theory, the whole thing changes, yet still stays the same. That is, thinking/speaking are still balled up in important ways. You still can't really split that nut well (other than for discreet purposes in ordinary language). And because the new role for language is simply to be another kind of behavior (meaning is use), now, everything can be said. There's no requirement of silence. HOWEVER, that doesn't make everything that is said WORTH saying. What determines this is grammar and the aesthetic in question.

In both worlds, language still bounds the form of life. And in both worlds, it is language is still the focal point. Instead of language wedded to logic, it is now wed to grammar. Once Wittgenstein saw that the aims of language were not what he originally envisioned, the central tenets of the Tractatus had to change, but the mission of it really stayed the same. It is almost as if the Tractatus simply had to be recommissioned. It's the same project. It's the same goal. It just now serves the new instruments (the new understanding).

Indeed, I see many things in the Tractatus that are still alive today. I see conditions of assertability all over the place. And what I fundamentally see as the major error is simply the role that language is thought to play, and the resultant feature that logic had to play to keep language in order. One wants to say: the Tractatus is really a prequel of sorts. It's like what the Hobbit is to Lord of the Rings.          

Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
Assistant Professor
Wright State University
Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html

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7f.

Re: [C] !!!Re: Re: Metaphysical Versus Mystical

Posted by: "void" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 10:28 pm (PST)




>
> In both worlds, language still bounds the form of life. And in both worlds, it is language is still the focal point. Instead of language wedded to logic, it is now wed to grammar. Once Wittgenstein saw that the aims of language were not what he originally envisioned, the central tenets of the Tractatus had to change, but the mission of it really stayed the same. It is almost as if the Tractatus simply had to be recommissioned. It's the same project. It's the same goal. It just now serves the new instruments (the new understanding).
>
> Indeed, I see many things in the Tractatus that are still alive today. I see conditions of assertability all over the place. And what I fundamentally see as the major error is simply the role that language is thought to play, and the resultant feature that logic had to play to keep language in order. One wants to say: the Tractatus is really a prequel of sorts. It's like what the Hobbit is to Lord of the Rings.          
>
>
> Dr. Sean Wilson, Esq.
> Assistant Professor
> Wright State University
> Personal Website: http://seanwilson.org
> SSRN papers: http://ssrn.com/author=596860
> Discussion Group: http://seanwilson.org/wittgenstein.discussion.html
>
>
> Supportive theory by SANKARA of Adwaitha philosophy of India
For the means of knowledge to operate, it requires the notion of a doer, and the notion of a doer is the result of superimposition on the unattached brain. In other words, as soon as one falsely identifies the self as a mind, i.e. an agent, or doer, then all fields that operate are in the field of ignorance. Science, means of knowledge etc, since they require a distinct doer, are therefore bound in the field of ignorance.
Simply to say that the instinctive behavior of humans in the empirical field is due to a series of misconceptions due to non-discrimination between the subject and the non-subject, and that humans share this behavior with the rest of the animal kingdom. Now humans, apart from their faculty of discrimination, must be different somehow, and therefore not subject to ignorance?
In his brief introduction, sankara tells us the reason we cannot attain enlightenment. It is because it is in our nature to mix up the real and not real and therefore perceive a world of duality with multiple knower/doers/subjects and things to be known/done/objects. In particular, we falsely confuse the eternal Truth that is our innermost self and is The Witness with no role in empirical life, to be acting as an agent. This confusion is innate to us, and is a matter of common experience requiring no proof. It is beginning less and endless in the sphere of the empirical universe. This confusion or superimposition is the basic ignorance that results in this world of duality. The world of duality fashioned by ignorance is termed to be illusion, as it can only be perceived once this basic superimposition has occurred. And all activities include the secular and scientific fall into the field of ignorance as they must presuppose a distinct doer. The purpose of the philosophy texts is to point out this ignorance as essentially the nature of a false mental notion, and remove all misconceptions, to reveal the nature of Truth. A thorough understanding of imposition is required as a first step, therefore, is vital to understand the texts of philosophy and Wittgenstein in particular. It is for this reason that this text is held in such high regard, and deserves to be studied by all serious students of philosophy.
Verbatim is super imposed over real for certainty.
Thank you
sekhar

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7g.

Re: [C] Re: !!!Re: Re: Metaphysical Versus Mystical

Posted by: "kirby urner" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Wed Jan 13, 2010 1:52 am (PST)



On Tue, Jan 12, 2010 at 7:59 PM, Sean Wilson <whoooo26505@yahoo.com> wrote:

<< >>

> Think about that. In order to know what can't be thought, we would have to be able to entertain it. We can't do that. Therefore, we can only draw the limit in language. KEY PREMISE: Because language's purpose is to mirror the world, it's only proper use is to picture reality (or perform logic upon picturing statements).

Following along here...

When we get to the PI, language's purpose is no longer to mirror the
world. That's a descriptive purpose, pictures matching facts, but
what about commands in battle, what about jokes?

The idea that language boils down to "propositions" is gone as well.
That one might cast every utterance in propositional form is merely to
conceal deep differences (in usage) behind a thin veneer (the mask of
"philosophy").

Going back to the Tractatus: calling something "meaningless" or
"nonsensical" is derogatory by connotation (not by denotation).

The world of facts has no good or bad, no intrinsic better or worse,
so on the "positivist" side of the fence, there's no call for valuing
"meaningful" any higher than "meaningless".

I regard the Tractatus as a kind of banishing of ethics and aesthetics
to the an extra-factual realm, but then by its own reasoning, so is
the Tractatus a work about ethics and aesthetics (he equates the two).

The Tractatus is nonsense in other words, by LW's own reasoning.

Wittgenstein is less the positivist and more the mystic because "that
which it makes no sense to speak about" ends up having high ethical
value, whereas "that which is the case" is meaningless in a different
way: is simply what's so (is the case) and who cares about that?
(Answer: the self, but then "caring" is not a

The Tractatus is self-referential in saying: really I can't be
sensibly telling you any of this, as "the relationship of logic to the
world" is outside of what it's sensible to talk about. The Tractatus
is a mission impossible, set to self destruct about five minutes after
you "get it".

I'm not thinking these views are unique to me or unheard of in the
vast secondary literature already out there. Goes with the "waxing
and waning" of the world, which I think connects to this idea of
"sin". As we sin, the aesthetic worth of our world drains away. Sin
may be collective, a kind of mob rule.

I would then link "sin" and the existentialist "nausea", also
Kierkegaard's "dread". A waning world. Bucky Fuller: "utopia or
oblivion". The movie 'Jarhead' is apropos, as it explicitly links to
existentialism while showing the dark (dreadful, nauseating) face of
war.

Anyway, basta (enough). Back to my other studies...

Kirby
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8a.

Re: On the Varieties of Dualism

Posted by: "BruceD" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Tue Jan 12, 2010 6:39 pm (PST)




--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote:

> we experience ourselves as agents of purposeful activity; but,
> neuroscientists measuring the brain activity correlated with
experiences
> of intentional actions have a separate vocabulary for describing brain
> activity.
>
> that's predicate dualism

Question: Is it predicate dualism only if one thinks that the
neuroscientist and the ordinary person are talking about the same thing,
two different properties of the same thing? But perhaps it is not
dualism of any kind if there is simply a correlation between two
recordings.

I play music. I look at your fMRI. I ask you "what do you here?" You say
"music." I record both. They are correlated. What compels me to insist
that they are "two sides of a coin", aspects of an underlying substance?

brucw

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