[opendtv] Re: How the FCC actually defines "telecom"
- From: "Manfredi, Albert E" <albert.e.manfredi@xxxxxxxxxx>
- To: "opendtv@xxxxxxxxxxxxx" <opendtv@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Sat, 19 Aug 2017 01:42:43 +0000
Craig Birkmaier wrote:
Sorry, but that's another false premise. With telephone service,
the line was taxed, not the individual users. Facebook is a user
of the "advanced telecom service." It's not *the* advanced telecom
service. If they are taxed, it would be as any business ... having
nothing to do with Title II.
I am not talking about Facebook - regulation of them, Google,
Amazon and others is being suggested because of the monopoly power
they are starting to use.
But not because of Title II. That would be some sort of anti-trust, or other
such regulation, likely not even up to the FCC. I already explained all of this.
I was SPECIFICALLY talking about regulation of VOIP services like
Vonage and MagicJack, which are IDENTICAL to the Cox VOIP service,
I already responded to that too, Craig. Let me try this, to see if it sticks.
If the broadband link itself is taxed under Title II, then any service carried
over that link would not be. Why? Because your broadband link would (may,
should) ALREADY be paying the tax for lifeline service and other such overhead,
assuming the powers that be determine that broadband is an essential service
for everyone. That's what the FCC wanted, and still should.
We did. The cable industry was well down the road to building
their own "walled in" Internet.
THANK YOU FOR MAKING MY POINT! Couldn't have done it better myself. Let's be
thankful that we had regulation, in the form of Title II neutral telephone
systems, on which to build the Internet. We wouldn't have wanted it any other
way! This contradicts your claim that regulation stunts innovation, Craig. And
by the way, your use of "we" once again shows your true colors.
Bert
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