[lit-ideas] nofi, from https://philosophynow.org/issues/83/Hume_on_Is_and_Ought
- From: palma <palmaadriano@xxxxxxxxx>
- To: "lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx" <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Wed, 3 Sep 2014 18:59:55 +0200
given this inane liking of pop culture, I shall oblige by quoting a simple
popular article, that none the less is written by someone who knows what he
(was) talking about
this from Pigden, Charles
But is No-Ought-From-Is true? Not quite. It is an instance of the logical
principle that in a valid inference there can be no matter in the
conclusion that is not contained in the premises, and as the New Zealand
logician Arthur Prior pointed out this is not strictly correct. However,
what we can show is that if you have non-logical words in the conclusion of
a valid inference that do not appear in the premises they will be vacuous
in a certain sense and that in a logically valid argument you can’t get
anything non-vacuous out that you haven’t put in. This gives us
No-Non-Vacuous–Ought-From-Is which is close enough to the original NOFI to
sustain Hume’s key arguments. So for simplicity’s sake we will stick with
No-Ought-From-Is in its original form.
On Wed, Sep 3, 2014 at 6:44 PM, Walter C. Okshevsky <wokshevs@xxxxxx> wrote:
> I missed your pointing out decades ago why you believe the NF is not a
> fallacy.
> But perhaps we could stay with Searle.
>
> Since we are a dialogical community of inquiry, after all, and not all of
> us may
> have read Searle on the NF, why don't you hum a few bars of the tune you
> believe
> Searle was crooning so we may all chirp in on whether Searle got it right
> "50
> yrs ago (!)" and/or on whether you got Searle right of course. Always good
> to
> be singing from the same page of the hymn book.
>
> Eschewing mightily ...
>
> (And no-one say "Gesundheit.")
>
> Walter O
> Dacha Svetlaya Polyana
>
>
> Quoting Adriano Palma <Palma@xxxxxxxxxx>:
>
> > That is what you believe. I don't, for reasons pointed out decades ago.
> You
> > may enjoy refuting the views published 50 yrs ago (!) e.g by J. R.
> Searle. In
> > Phil Rev 1n 1964. The piece is available even on the www via courtesy of
> duke
> > press. You may equally enjoy A. Prior's work on the subject. I have no
> idea
> > of what political commentary you have. Feel free to eschew whatever it is
> > that ought to be eschewed
> > best
> >
> > -----Original Message-----
> > From: lit-ideas-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx [mailto:
> lit-ideas-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx]
> > On Behalf Of Walter C. Okshevsky
> > Sent: 02 September 2014 21:36
> > To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx; Eric
> > Subject: [lit-ideas] Re: Vedr: Three arguments against quantitative
> social
> > "science" as science
> >
> > With reference to your question (and eschewing all political
> commentary), I
> > would say, yes, the naturalistic fallacy (Hume's version) is indeed a
> logical
> > fallacy. An argument with all (only) empirical premises cannot validly
> > conclude with a moral or any value judgement. That's what I believe and
> I
> > think you ought to agree.
> >
> > On his dacha,
> >
> > Walter O
> >
> >
> > Quoting Eric <mr.eric.yost@xxxxxxxxx>:
> >
> > > >> Compare and contrast: many believe that much of the turmoil in the
> > > >> near
> > > east is caused (con-caused) by the very existence of the state of
> Israel.
> > > Come onto stage the "humean" theorist who tells me that there is no
> > "proof"
> > > of that.
> > >
> > >
> > >
> > > It is impossible to prove "beliefs" (values) by facts, is it not?
> > >
> > > One cannot demonstrate or prove values by facts--z.b., to show those
> > > who question the worth of Israel's existence are fools--but one CAN
> > > report the statistical results of opinion polls, and use those results
> > > to "update a web of beliefs" (Quine).
> > >
> > > Eric
> > >
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