[lit-ideas] Re: The Immortality of Popper

  • From: Donal McEvoy <donalmcevoyuk@xxxxxxxxxxx>
  • To: "lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx" <lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
  • Date: Sun, 6 Jan 2013 06:31:34 +0000 (GMT)

It's early morning and I've just disposed of a diaper - you may have caught me 
at a bad time. Nvthless...




----- Original Message -----
From: "Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx" <Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx>

>Thanks to D. McEvoy for the clarification   between valid deductions and 
invalid inductions. >

Yeh, it was great wasn't it?

>McEvoy had written,  in  Lit-Ideas, some time ago (rather than some time in 
the  future):

"'All men  are immortal' is scientific because testable;  whereas 'All men 
are mortal' is  not per se testable or scientific, for  its potential 
falsifier - an immortal  person - is not  observable."

I provided the alleged  counterexample:
I wrote,  basing myself on the above observations by  McEvoy:
"Popper proves  that it is testable that "Popper is mortal" is  observable.">

Now immediately we have an issue: this "alleged counterexample" is not a 
counterexample to anything I have suggested - for even if we can observe a 
'dead Popper', all this falsifies is that "All men are immortal"; it does not 
falsify "All men are mortal".

So it is wrong for JLS to suggest that observing a dead Popper is some kind of 
counterexample to the view that Popper's immortality is not observable, yet 
this is what JLS appears to suggest:

>--- by  contra-position to Popper's claim that, "Popper is  immortal" is 
not  
observable.>

This is wrong - because to observe a dead Popper is not to observe anything 
from which we might infer that an undying Popper is observable. To be clear: an 
undying or immortal Popper is not observable because this perpetual state goes 
beyond anything observable.


>McEvoy comments:

"Hmm."

-----  vide  Grice, "The implicature of "hmm"".

And goes on:

"This [i.e.   the claim that "Popper is mortal is observable"] ... seems to 
[be or become  or  subsist, or supervene on] the product of some confusion 
of  
thought.">


I left out the "be", so should have written "seems to be".

JLS asks >Why?>

Before continuing let me explain something. Take 'My car is now parked in the 
street'. This is testable by observation, and so is a scientific claim (it 
happens to be false btw, and for several reasons). But whether we treat 'My car 
is now parked in the street' as a scientific claim depends on our view of 
science - here, if we take the view that 'if a statement is 
falsifiable/testable by observation then it is scientific', we may conclude 
that 'My car etc.' is scientific. But that we take such a view is not thrust on 
us by observation: nor is that view [viz. that 'if a statement is 
falsifiable/testable by observation then it is scientific'] a view that is 
itself falsifiable/testable by observation.

This is why, as JLS puts it, "Well, as McEvoy goes on":

"[J]ust because we may observe  Popper 'in a state of being  dead' would 
not mean that the claim "Popper 'being  dead' is  observable" is itself 
observably true or testable _in that same   sense_]. But [I] am tiring 
[myself] now."

Now this may need some clear thinking to appreciate but comes to this: let us 
grant that we may observe a dead Popper, that is one thing. It is another thing 
to say that the claim 'we may observe a dead Popper' is an observation claim at 
the same level as 'Popper is dead'. By observing a 'dead Popper' we may thereby 
show that a dead Popper is observable; but we do not thereby show that it is 
observable that 'we may observe a dead Popper'. Put another way: while Popper 
being dead may be observable and an issue that can be settled scientifically, 
it is not observable [or something that can be settled scientifically] that 
'Popper is dead' is a scientific claim.

Before you ask, No, this is not the start to the New Year that was reflected in 
any resolutions I may rashly have made.


Best,

Donal

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