My last post today! In a message dated 5/11/2014 6:20:42 P.M. Eastern Daylight Time, lawrencehelm@xxxxxxxxxxxxxx writes: Which causes me to wonder whether this advantage, the advantage of practicing agriculture for longer than their neighbors gave Rome an advantage over its neighbors for longer than if those neighbors had been farmers and not merely herders. There is a fascinating entry in Wikipedia for Roman agriculture! From it, I extract: "In the 5th century BC, farms in Rome were small and family-owned. The Greeks of this period, however, had started using crop rotation and had large estates. Rome's contact with Carthage, Greece, and the Hellenistic East in the 3rd and 2nd centuries improved Rome's agricultural methods. Roman agriculture reached its height in productivity and efficiency during the late republic and early empire." L. Helm: >the advantage of practicing agriculture for longer than their neighbours gave Rome an advantage... However, it does not seem to have given the _Greeks_ an advantage, and as the Wikipedia notes, while the Greeks were excelling the Romans [using crop roration on larger estates, and stuff], and granted, they were not _strict_ neighbours, they got defeated by them? Cheers, Speranza ------------------------------------------------------------------ To change your Lit-Ideas settings (subscribe/unsub, vacation on/off, digest on/off), visit www.andreas.com/faq-lit-ideas.html