[lit-ideas] Re: Beyond signalling lies nothing

  • From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Thu, 11 Aug 2011 13:36:37 EDT

Definitely my last post today. 
 
I have retrieved the post by McEvoy from the online lit-ideas files, so  
I'll comment, before I disconnect for the weekend.

McEvoy  writes:

"This claim", as per header, "surely needs some defending. Popper  adopts 
Karl Buehler's 
_Sprachtheorie_ which distinguishes the expressive,  signalling and 
descriptive 
functions [there are others, like the  'performative', but these may be set 
aside here;"

--- That was  interesting to know. I like Buehler. I like other taxonomies, 
too. I think Grice  follows Hermes, by Harris. The functions being two, 
then: expression of desires  (imperative, subjunctive mood) and beliefs 
(indicative mood). Cited by Chomsky,  "Cartesian Linguistics".

---

McEvoy continues:

"and to  Buehler's hierarchy of functions, Popper proposes that above 
the descriptive  level there is the argumentative function]. A key 
assumption is 
that the  higher functions presuppose the lower: not merely in the sense 
that 
they  emerge later and subsequent to the lower but they cannot be present 
without  all the lower functions also simultaneously being present. In 
other 
words,  it is impossible to describe without at the same time signalling 
(or  
involving the signalling function), and likewise any such signalling must  
also 
involve the expressive function. 
This means that to show there is  no higher function than signalling, it is 
not 
enough to point out how a  description can be interpreted as a form of 
signalling - for this is  accepted even on a _Sprachtheorie_ like 
Buehler's. It 
is necessary to show  that whatever in a description that might seem to 
involve 
something beyond  mere signalling - for example, the question of the truth 
or 
falsity of the  description - can be reduced, without distortion, to a mere 
act 
of  signalling. To take an example, if I were to say to my neighbour that 
their  
house is on fire, there is no issue of whether this is true or false but  
merely 
an issue as to whether my signalling causes in them the intended  reaction 
[say, 
of panic]. 
Is it the case that Grice denies there is any  such issue of truth over and 
above the efficacy of the signal? How is this  to be defended?"

---- I'll have to meditate onto this. When it comes to  the TWO functions, 
doxastic and bouletic, alla Harris, I do think that one can  be reduced to 
the other: the doxastic to the bouletic, as when we say, "desire  is the 
father of thought", or "we soon believe what we desire" (both listed in  the 
Oxford Dict. of Proverbs). But I realise Popper's point is  subtler.

McEvoy then refers to 'sign' and 'mean',


"This is  also flawed because, unlike the dance of a bee or the warning 
sounds of  
birds, the spot is not engaged in a programme of action that involves  
signalling and where its effectiveness in signalling can be judged: to say 
a  
'spot' is a sign of measles is not to say the spot 'signals' or can be seen 
 as 
engaged in 'signalling' that there are measles."

----- I see. Yes,  Grice's example can be played around with.

He said,

Those spots  mean measles TO THE DOCTOR, but not _to me_. I actually 
thought there was  nothing wrong with Tommy.

-- and stuff. He was into getting away with the  complexities he had found 
in Peirce, with his multifarious taxonomies of signs,  and thought that 
'mean' would do. He does quote from Stevenson who ALWAYS has  'mean' in scare 
quotes for these cases:

"His burp 'meant' that he was  just an uneducated person', versus "he 
signalled rudeness" -- and so  on.

As Palma notes, '-al-' is usually otiose, as in 'signAL', when 'sign'  
should do. I am Grecian at heart, and think that 'seme' should ONLY be applied  
for 'natural' phenomena. The Greeks distinguished between

'by nature'  (phusei)

and

'by convention' or position, 'thesei'.

A burp  does SIGNIFY something (semein, is the verb). "Signare" in Latin 
and "segnare"  in Italian CAN BE used to mean 'mean', but in the case of 
Italian as Palma  notes, this is archaic -- as it should be.

I'm not sure the Romans used  'signal', i.e. anything adding the suffix, 
-al to the root, 'sign'. But I could  check.

---- The point about the functions in Buehler, etc, are valid. But  I'll 
think about that. It seems to me that Grice is into

HW

hand  wave.

This he has as paradigm of signalling, which is IDIOSYNCRATIC in  the 
beginning. One utterer makes a signal like a handwave to communicate this or  
that. Only at a later stage this may become a 'procedure'. So he is into 
one-off  signalling scenarios. I'm not sure this primitive signalling function  
presupposes more richer ones involving description. Again the root square 
symbol  used by Grice may help here as it relates to Hare and his phrastic and 
neustic  and tropic and clistic.

For Hare, the descriptum is the dictum, the  phrastic. But there's the 
phrastic, which is like the imperative function or  declarative function, and 
then there's the tropic, which is the grammatical  manifestation (a rhetoric 
question, 'who needs a drive in?' may have the force  of a declaration), and 
the clistic which is the sign of closure -- as in  ".".

.

Cheers,

Speranza
 
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