Been puzzling about this question for some time now, and figure somebody
here should be able to answer. Question: If a distant object has an
angular size of 1 arcsecond, does that mean the rays of light from that
object are diverging at an angle of 1 arcsecond? My first intuition said
"yes" but then I started second-guessing myself. Thanks for any
clarification. -Dan Heim
See message header for info on list archives or unsubscribing, and please
send personal replies to the author, not the list.