[C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 84

  • From: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • To: WittrsAMR@xxxxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: 25 Dec 2009 10:51:23 -0000

Title: WittrsAMR

Messages In This Digest (14 Messages)

Messages

1a.

Re: Is There a Self that Philosophers may Talk About?

Posted by: "Cayuse" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 3:35 am (PST)



Joseph Polanik wrote:
> Cayuse wrote:
>> Joseph Polanik wrote:
>>> you have yourself identified the microcosm and the stream of
>>> experiences (which you say is the philosophical self).
>
>> Yes, /the physical organism that I am/ claims an identity for the
>> stream of experiences, the philosophical self, and what LW calls "the
>> microcosm", but /the stream of experiences that I am/ makes no claims
>> at all -- the making of claims is an activity that goes on /within it/.
>
> the stream of experiences that I am claims, "I am this stream of
> experiences".

That is just another claim (a meta-claim) arising /within/ the stream.

>>> is there any thinking in the stream of experiences?
>
>> The philosophical self IS the stream of experiences, and thinking
>> goes on within that stream. So the philosophical self can't be said
>> to *experience* thinking (as though it were something distinct from
>> that stream) -- rather the philosophical self *encompasses* thinking.
>
> the question is whether the stream of experiences can self-reference
> in the first-person.
>
> we agree as to the identity of 'the stream of experiences', 'the
> philosophical self' and 'the microcosm'. we know that LW wrote "I am
> my world (the microcosm)". TLP 5.63. consequently, it seems obvious
> that, for LW, the philosophical self is capable of first-person
> self-referencing.

There's nothing obvious about the claim you're making here --
you'll have to clarify your interpretation of LW's comment
in order to support your claim.

> yet you disagree. on what grounds?

"To do" is a verb that describes certain activities undertaken by
entities appearing /within/ the stream of experiences, and the stream
of experiences can't be said to /do/ anything at all, since it isn't an
entity appearing within the stream. Rather, our "bewitchment by
language" misleads us into the erroneous reification of that stream.

==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

1b.

Is There a Self that Philosophers may Talk About?

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 7:38 am (PST)



Cayuse wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>the question is whether the stream of experiences can self-reference
>>in the first-person.

>>we agree as to the identity of 'the stream of experiences', 'the
>>philosophical self' and 'the microcosm'. we know that LW wrote "I am
>>my world (the microcosm)". TLP 5.63. consequently, it seems obvious
>>that, for LW, the philosophical self is capable of first-person
>>self-referencing.

>There's nothing obvious about the claim you're making here -- you'll
>have to clarify your interpretation of LW's comment in order to
>support your claim.

what part is non-obvious? there are only three claims

[1] as we have been using them, the terms 'the stream of experiences',
'the philosophical self', 'instantiation of consciousness' and 'the
microcosm' are synonymous.

[2] LW wrote "I am my world (the microcosm)". TLP 5.63.

[3] (hence) for LW, the philosophical self is capable of first-person
self-referencing.

in TLP 5.63, the parenthetical _expression_, 'the microcosm' explains or
specifies what is meant by 'my world'.

since 'stream of experiences' and 'microcosm' are synonymous, one could
explicitly translate TLP 5.63 as 'I am this stream of experiences'.

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
http://what-am-i.net
@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@

==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

1c.

Re: Is There a Self that Philosophers may Talk About?

Posted by: "Cayuse" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 8:42 am (PST)



Joseph Polanik wrote:
> Cayuse wrote:
>> Joseph Polanik wrote:
>>> we agree as to the identity of 'the stream of experiences', 'the
>>> philosophical self' and 'the microcosm'. we know that LW wrote "I am
>>> my world (the microcosm)". TLP 5.63. consequently, it seems obvious
>>> that, for LW, the philosophical self is capable of first-person
>>> self-referencing.
>
>> There's nothing obvious about the claim you're making here -- you'll
>> have to clarify your interpretation of LW's comment in order to
>> support your claim.
>
> what part is non-obvious? there are only three claims
>
> [1] as we have been using them, the terms 'the stream of experiences',
> 'the philosophical self', 'instantiation of consciousness' and 'the
> microcosm' are synonymous.
>
> [2] LW wrote "I am my world (the microcosm)". TLP 5.63.
>
> [3] (hence) for LW, the philosophical self is capable of first-person
> self-referencing.

Claim[3] is the non-obvious claim -- you'll have to clarify your
interpretation of LW's comment in order to support that claim.

> in TLP 5.63, the parenthetical _expression_, 'the microcosm' explains or
> specifies what is meant by 'my world'.
>
> since 'stream of experiences' and 'microcosm' are synonymous, one
> could explicitly translate TLP 5.63 as 'I am this stream of
> experiences'.

Agreed, but how does this become your claim[3] above?
==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

1d.

Re: Is There a Self that Philosophers may Talk About?

Posted by: "void" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 6:52 pm (PST)





--- In WittrsAMR@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
> Cayuse wrote:
>
> >Joseph Polanik wrote:
>
> >>Cayuse wrote:
>
> >Any postulate of an "experiencer" is unjustified and without
> >application.
>
> >>>What is to be gained by postulating any such entity?
>
> >>there is no postulating. as I demonstrated, experience implies an
> >>experiencer --- unless, of course, you want to resume your attempted
> >>refutation of that claim.
>
> >The claim that "there is experience, therefore there is an experiencer"
> >is simply bad logic. I've no great desire to disabuse you of your
> >error,
>
> after trying mightily *and failing* to refute the proof that
> experiencing implies that there is something that is experiencing, you
> suddenly conclude that you have no great desire to disabuse me of my
> 'error'.
>
> sour grapes.
>
> >which is as much to say as that I'm happy to agree to disagree in
> >order to avoid wasting any more time on this issue.
>
> it's not that simple. we are discussing the way in which 'philosophy can
> talk about the self'; but, it is not clear that you accept that there is
> a self that philosophers may talk about, a self or an 'I' that is not
> the human being, the human body or the human soul.
>
> do you?
>
> Joe
>
>
> -- I am my consciousness,I am the mind,I am the knowledge acquired (Duality)

There is no separation from knowledge and myself
Consciousness,mind,ego,I are one and the same but were given different names to identify as multiple intelligence of the language.
(non duality) Feeling is non dual as long as time is not involved.

thank you
sekhar
>
> Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware
>
> @^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
> http://what-am-i.net
> @^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
>
>
> ==========================================
>
> Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/
>

=========================================
Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

1e.

Is There a Self that Philosophers may Talk About?

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Fri Dec 25, 2009 12:17 am (PST)



void wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>we are discussing the way in which 'philosophy can talk about the
>>self'; but, it is not clear that you accept that there is a self that
>>philosophers may talk about, a self or an 'I' that is not the human
>>being, the human body or the human soul.

>>do you?

>I am my consciousness,I am the mind,I am the knowledge acquired
>(Duality)

>There is no separation from knowledge and myself

one possible state of understanding or knowledge may be expressed thus:
I know that I am; but, not what I am.

would you agree?

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
http://what-am-i.net
@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@

==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

2a.

Where Is The Self That Philosophers Talk About?

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 6:50 am (PST)



Cayuse wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>Cayuse wrote:

>>>but where is this "container" or "bundler-together"?

>>I am here.

>My wife enters the house and calls my name. I reply "I am here".
>The proclamation has an application in this case, but not in the case
>that you present. We're just covering old ground here, and we made
>no headway the last time around. I don't see the point of this.

then don't ask foolish rhetorical questions.

as previously discussed, each person is associated with an instantiation
of consciousness. I, (this instantiation of consciousness, this stream
of experiences, this microcosm, etc.) am *here* where my body is or
seems to be.

if you think you, as an instantiation of consciousness, are somewhere
other than where your body is or seems to be; then, where are *you*?

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
http://what-am-i.net
@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@

==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

2b.

Re: Where Is The Self That Philosophers Talk About?

Posted by: "Cayuse" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 8:39 am (PST)



Joseph Polanik wrote:
> Cayuse wrote:
>> Joseph Polanik wrote:
>>> Cayuse wrote:
>>>> but where is this "container" or "bundler-together"?
>
>>> I am here.
>
>> My wife enters the house and calls my name. I reply "I am here".
>> The proclamation has an application in this case, but not in the case
>> that you present. We're just covering old ground here, and we made
>> no headway the last time around. I don't see the point of this.
>
> then don't ask foolish rhetorical questions.
>
> as previously discussed, each person is associated with an
> instantiation of consciousness.

Each person is /instinctively believed to be/ associated with
an instantiation of consciousness.

> I, (this instantiation of consciousness, this stream of experiences, this
> microcosm, etc.) am *here* where my body is or seems to be.
>
> if you think you, as an instantiation of consciousness, are somewhere
> other than where your body is or seems to be; then, where are *you*?

It is nonsensical to speak about the location in spacetime of the stream
of experience, since location in spacetime is part of the description of
entities appearing /within/ the stream of experience, and the stream of
experience is not an entity appearing within the stream of experience.

==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

2c.

Re: Where Is The Self That Philosophers Talk About?

Posted by: "void" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 6:52 pm (PST)





--- In WittrsAMR@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <wittrsamr@...> wrote:
>
> Cayuse wrote:
>
> >Joseph Polanik wrote:
>
> >>Cayuse wrote:
>
> >>>but where is this "container" or "bundler-together"?
>
> >>I am here.
>
> >My wife enters the house and calls my name. I reply "I am here".
> >The proclamation has an application in this case, but not in the case
> >that you present. We're just covering old ground here, and we made
> >no headway the last time around. I don't see the point of this.
>
> then don't ask foolish rhetorical questions.
>
> as previously discussed, each person is associated with an instantiation
> of consciousness. I, (this instantiation of consciousness, this stream
> of experiences, this microcosm, etc.) am *here* where my body is or
> seems to be.
>
> if you think you, as an instantiation of consciousness, are somewhere
> other than where your body is or seems to be; then, where are *you*?
>
> Joe

> I am everywhere as well no where.I am there as a knowledge.Limitations of my knowledge shows me as limited.

The term self-schema refers to the beliefs and ideas people have about themselves. These beliefs are used to guide and organize information processing, especially when the information is significant to the self. Self-schemas are important to a person's overall self-concept.
Once we have developed a schema about ourselves there is a strong tendency for that schema to be maintained by a bias in what we attend to, a bias in what we remember, and a bias in what we are prepared to accept as true about ourselves. In other words our self-schema becomes self-perpetuating. The self-schema is then stored in long-term memory and both facilitates and biases the processing of personally relevant information.
Self-schemas vary from person to person because each individual has very different social and cultural life experiences. A few examples of self-schemas are; exciting/ dull, quiet/ loud, healthy/ sickly, athletic/ nonathletic, lazy/ active, and geek/ jock. If a person has a schema for geek/ jock, for example, he might think of himself as a bit of a computer geek and so he would possess a lot of information about that trait. Because of this he would probably interpret a lot of situations based on their relevance to being a geek.
For another example consider the healthy/ sickly schema. A person with this schema might consider herself a very health conscious person. Her concern with being healthy would then affect every day decisions like what to buy at the grocery store, what restaurant to eat out at, or how much exercise she should get daily. Women who are schematic on appearance exhibited lower body image, lower self-esteem, and more negative mood than did those who are aschematic on appearance.

thank you
sekhar
>
> Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware
>
> @^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
> http://what-am-i.net
> @^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
>
>
> ==========================================
>
> Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/
>

=========================================
Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

2d.

The Self of Personal Identity vs The Self of Personal Ontology

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Fri Dec 25, 2009 12:38 am (PST)



void wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>Cayuse wrote:

>>>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>>>Cayuse wrote:

>>>>>but where is this "container" or "bundler-together"?

>>>>I am here.

>>>My wife enters the house and calls my name. I reply "I am here".
>>>The proclamation has an application in this case, but not in the case
>>>that you present. We're just covering old ground here, and we made
>>>no headway the last time around. I don't see the point of this.

>>then don't ask foolish rhetorical questions.

>>as previously discussed, each person is associated with an
>>instantiation of consciousness. I, (this instantiation of
>>consciousness, this stream of experiences, this microcosm, etc.) am
>>*here* where my body is or seems to be.

>>if you think you, as an instantiation of consciousness, are somewhere
>>other than where your body is or seems to be; then, where are *you*?

>The term self-schema refers to the beliefs and ideas people have about
>themselves. These beliefs are used to guide and organize information
>processing, especially when the information is significant to the self.
>Self-schemas are important to a person's overall self-concept.

>Once we have developed a schema about ourselves there is a strong
>tendency for that schema to be maintained by a bias in what we attend
>to, a bias in what we remember, and a bias in what we are prepared to
>accept as true about ourselves. In other words our self-schema becomes
>self-perpetuating. The self-schema is then stored in long-term memory
>and both facilitates and biases the processing of personally relevant
>information.

>Self-schemas vary from person to person because each individual has
>very different social and cultural life experiences.

there is a difference between an interest in personal identity and an
interest in personal ontology.

personal identity concerns the ways in which each one of us is unique.
personal ontology concerns the ways in which each one of us is the same.

LW's writings about the philosophical self indicate he is concerned with
personal ontology rather than personal identity. he says that
philosophers may talk about the self in a way that is not psychological
--- that doesn't concern the ways that a self-image or self-schema may
be self-perpetuating.

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
http://what-am-i.net
@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@

==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

2e.

Where Is The Self That Philosophers Talk About?

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Fri Dec 25, 2009 1:19 am (PST)



Cayuse wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>I, (this instantiation of consciousness, this stream of experiences,
>>this microcosm, etc.) am *here* where my body is or seems to be.

>>if you think you, as an instantiation of consciousness, are somewhere
>>other than where your body is or seems to be; then, where are *you*?

>It is nonsensical to speak about the location in spacetime of the
>stream of experience, since location in spacetime is part of the
>description of entities appearing /within/ the stream of experience,
>and the stream of experience is not an entity appearing within the
>stream of experience.

most philosophers in the field of philosophy of consciousness have
adopted the principle (or should I say convention?) that an
experiencable phenomenon such as an afterimage is located where the
measurable phenomenon that causes it is located.

IMO, there is both a general and a specific reason for adopting this
convention (or is it a principle (it is certainly not a 'finding' or a
discovery)).

the general reason is that this convention (IMO) makes it more difficult
(if not actually impossible) for Descartes to establish the distinction
between res extensa and res cogitans. material objects occupy space and
have a spacetime location; but, according to Descartes, experiences do
not occupy space or have a spatial location --- they are sequential in
time.

the specific reason for this convention (IMO) is that it is required by
the mind/brain identity thesis. a measurable phenomenon (eg a brain
event) has a spatial location. if an experiencable phenomenon does not
have a spatial location; then, by the law of indiscernibility of
identicals, an experiencable phenomenon could not be identical to a
measurable phenomenon because the would not have exactly the same set of
properties.

so, do you want to make things easier for Descartes; or, do you want to
make things easier for the mind-brain identity theorists?

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
http://what-am-i.net
@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@

==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

3a.

Oh! So It's Common Ground You Want?

Posted by: "Joseph Polanik" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 5:26 pm (PST)



SWM wrote:

>Joseph Polanik wrote:

>>Oh! So It's Common Ground You Want?

><snip>

>>I don't think that you and Bruce will ever find a common ground upon
>>which to stand until you establish a common language within which to
>>carry on the debate about what is or isn't common ground.

>>my suggestion is that we all agree to speak in the language of
>>correlation (between the experiencable and the measurable (or some
>>other pair of terms)) rather than in the language of causation ---
>>unless actually engaged in presenting an argument showing that there
>>is causation involved.

>>since you purport to be open to considering that dualism might be
>>true, you really out to stop using language that assumes that dualism
>>is false;

>Why?

>Do I also need to stop using language that assumes idealism is false?
>Or mysterianism is false?

if you purport to be impartially evaluating the evidence/arguments for
and against idealism or mysterianism; then ... yes.

>But why should I change my mind absent such evidence? Why not just
>stick with the historically successful approach that we don't need to
>posit extra stuff if a leaner explanation will do?

same answer as above. if you purport to be impartially evaluating the
evidence/arguments for and against the need to posit extra 'stuff';
then, the consideration of or debate over the alternatives should be
done in a language that does not prejudice the outcome of that debate.

>Finding common ground doesn't mean simply accepting the others' views.
>I think there is room for common ground with Bruce because what he
>seems to want to call "identity" I call "causal" but I can accept the
>other use readily enough. What holds me back from sim;y embracing his
>use is the concern that his notion of "identity" implies certain things
>that I take to be mistaken about my notion of identity in this case,
>namely the idea that by "identity" we must mean the logical kind (A=A).
>Since THAT is not what I mean, accepting that term will lead to further
>dispute and confusion. The common ground I have in mind is where we
>come to recognize that we share a meaning for a common term, e.g.,
>"identity".

Bruce and I have been trying to tell you that we do NOT share your
meaning of 'identity'.

>Given your fairly strong and explicit commitment to Cartesian dualism,
>I'm not sure there is room for us to find common ground though. Perhaps
>it may be in this: That we each agree that dualism is not impossible
>and that there could be some kind of evidence for it. Our current
>difference seems to be that you think it can be argued for successfully
>via logic, with everything else in the world remaining just as modern
>science tells us it is and I do not. In fact, I see no point in arguing
>about something for which evidence is not held to be relevant. But give
>me the right evidence and I would agree even to dualism.

you may have me confused with someone else.

while I "agree that dualism is not impossible and that there could be
some kind of evidence for it", I do not argue for Cartesian dualism.

some of my arguments sound like arguments Descartes might have made
early in the Meditations; indeed, my Experiento argument ("I experience;
therefore, I am") is little more than a better translation of "Cogito;
ergo, sum". however, such arguments only concern the difference between
experiencable phenomena and measurable phenomena. you don't actually get
Cartesian-style substance dualism until you postulate a non-physical
substance (ie a metaphenomenal reality) to explain experiencable
phenomena.

and that, of course, is the crux of the issue. I'm saying that the
debate over *whether* to postulate a second substance should be
conducted in a language that does not prejudice the outcome of the
debate.

in another thread you say

>All I have been saying is that, if consciousness can be explained in a
>way that is consistent with what we know about the physical universe as
>of now, without positing any additional entities, principles, factors
>or what not that are not otherwise accounted for in the current
>description(s) offered by physics, then there's no reason to posit them
>or to argue that we need to do so or that one such posit trumps
>another.

the problem with this perspective is that physicists are themselves
divided as to whether they must postulate a non-physical aspect of
consciousness to account for the experimental results in quantum
mechanics. the von Neumann Interpretation of QM postulates that the
'abstraktes ich' (abstract 'I') of the observer collapses the wave
function.

other interpretations do not postulate a non-physical aspect of
consciousness to account for the experimental results; but, there is
currently no experimental method for testing either type of
interpretation.

consequently, all we can say at this point is that monism can't possibly
be true unless von Neumann is wrong.

someone like Dennett (or like you) who advocates a physicalist theory to
explain the relation between experiencable phenomena and measurable
phenomena is effectively prefacing any remarks by saying 'assuming von
Neumann is wrong, my theory is ...'.

Joe

--

Nothing Unreal is Self-Aware

@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@
http://what-am-i.net
@^@~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~~@^@

==========================================

Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

3b.

Re: Oh! So It's Common Ground You Want?

Posted by: "SWM" wittrsamr@xxxxxxxxxxxxx

Thu Dec 24, 2009 8:10 pm (PST)



--- In Wittrs@yahoogroups.com, Joseph Polanik <jPolanik@...> wrote:
<snip>

> >>since you purport to be open to considering that dualism might be
> >>true, you really out to stop using language that assumes that dualism
> >>is false;
>

>
> >Do I also need to stop using language that assumes idealism is false?
> >Or mysterianism is false?
>

> if you purport to be impartially evaluating the evidence/arguments for
> and against idealism or mysterianism; then ... yes.
>

I don't. I'm not.

I'm saying they are not a relevant concern though I can conceive of circumstances where they would be relevant though that would only be on empirically based grounds which means it would be a matter for science (even if theoretical) and not for philosophers to resolve via speculation.

> >But why should I change my mind absent such evidence? Why not just
> >stick with the historically successful approach that we don't need to
> >posit extra stuff if a leaner explanation will do?
>

> same answer as above. if you purport to be impartially evaluating the
> evidence/arguments for and against the need to posit extra 'stuff';
> then, the consideration of or debate over the alternatives should be
> done in a language that does not prejudice the outcome of that debate.
>

I'm not evaluating a metaphysical question (anymore than I'm debating the relative merits of Sean's favorite football team, the Steelers, or a zillion other possible subjects of discussion)! I am, in fact, ignoring it because there's nothing in the metaphysical realm that can be resolved by argument, i.e., by recourse to logic alone.

> >Finding common ground doesn't mean simply accepting the others' views.
> >I think there is room for common ground with Bruce because what he
> >seems to want to call "identity" I call "causal" but I can accept the
> >other use readily enough. What holds me back from sim;y embracing his
> >use is the concern that his notion of "identity" implies certain things
> >that I take to be mistaken about my notion of identity in this case,
> >namely the idea that by "identity" we must mean the logical kind (A=A).
> >Since THAT is not what I mean, accepting that term will lead to further
> >dispute and confusion. The common ground I have in mind is where we
> >come to recognize that we share a meaning for a common term, e.g.,
> >"identity".
>

> Bruce and I have been trying to tell you that we do NOT share your
> meaning of 'identity'.
>

If Bruce doesn't accept that meaning, then it would be wrong for him (and you) to suppose that my notion of what "consciousness" means boils down to an "identity" claim of the sort you seem to want to impute to him and which he does sometimes sounds as if he is embracing.

And then there is no "common ground" to be discovered where Bruce and I can agree about what we each mean by the relation between brains and minds.

Neither you nor he can impute to me what I don't claim and suppose, by this, that you have established the meaning of my terms. You can't do this anymore than I can do that with regard to your positions.

> >Given your fairly strong and explicit commitment to Cartesian dualism,
> >I'm not sure there is room for us to find common ground though. Perhaps
> >it may be in this: That we each agree that dualism is not impossible
> >and that there could be some kind of evidence for it. Our current
> >difference seems to be that you think it can be argued for successfully
> >via logic, with everything else in the world remaining just as modern
> >science tells us it is and I do not. In fact, I see no point in arguing
> >about something for which evidence is not held to be relevant. But give
> >me the right evidence and I would agree even to dualism.
>

> you may have me confused with someone else.
>
> while I "agree that dualism is not impossible and that there could be
> some kind of evidence for it", I do not argue for Cartesian dualism.
>

That is good to know. All right, if you say you aren't a Cartesian I have to accept that at this point but perhaps further comments by you will make this clearer. So what do you want to argue for?

> some of my arguments sound like arguments Descartes might have made
> early in the Meditations; indeed, my Experiento argument ("I experience;
> therefore, I am") is little more than a better translation of "Cogito;
> ergo, sum".

Hmmm, it DOES sound very Cartesian to me but I'll let you elaborate further before drawing any conclusion.

> however, such arguments only concern the difference between
> experiencable phenomena and measurable phenomena.

A distinction that I think is very much mistaken as I've previously indicated.

> you don't actually get
> Cartesian-style substance dualism until you postulate a non-physical
> substance (ie a metaphenomenal reality) to explain experiencable
> phenomena.
>

Ah yes, you're the fellow who wants to make a big thing of the distinction between substance and property dualism contra my view (and that of my old nemesis, Searle). As I've noted, I agree with Searle here that, if it is dualism it must boil down to a claim about substance even if the term "substance" is never used. But if it doesn't, then it isn't really dualism at all because lots of things in the world have lots of kinds of properties and the fact that one such property, or group of properties, may be what Minsky calls "system properties" doesn't matter.

Indeed, the very word "property" shows its true colors here when one invokes that term because the distinction between something that is strictly tangible (as in perceivable), which is what physical properties are, and something that just happens to occur in connection with something else (a feature or characteristic) is not a clear one. That is, we can use "property" as "feature" or as a name for physically tangible aspects of things in the world (such as color, shape, texture, extension, etc.).

Is consciousness just so many mental properties as Walter insisted on Analytic? Well it depends on what we mean by "property". If we mean what Minsky means, then claiming it is such mental properties amounts to nothing dualistic because all you're doing is saying that brain processes have certain features which they manifestly do, one or more of which are part of what we recognize as being aspects of our mental lives. But if so, then such mental properties cannot be ontologically basic phenomena, irreducible to anything else. They are the outcome of other very different types of features, e.g., certain physical processes. But if you think that they ARE irreducible, then you are positing that they are basic in the way that whatever underlies the recognizably physical phenomena are basic and THAT is to posit at least two ontological basics in the universe, whether you call them "substances" or not. And THAT is dualism!

> and that, of course, is the crux of the issue. I'm saying that the
> debate over *whether* to postulate a second substance should be
> conducted in a language that does not prejudice the outcome of the
> debate.
>

We are not debating that though because I am saying that, if consciousness can be explained in a certain way, there is no reason to bother. No reason to debate.

You may still do so if you like, of course, but there is no real gain to be had from such an exercise since you can't prove or disprove your case. All you can do is spin a different theory, in this case a more complex one, kind of like the Ptolemaic picture of the solar system qua universe as so many crystalline spheres moving in various complex ways vs. the picture of how they move offered by Gallileo.

Scientific research into how brains do what they do is unlikely to follow such a move unless more stripped down approaches actually fail to pan out and it becomes clear from such failures that something more complex IS required.

For some reason you think you can argue for dualism (or whatever extra stuff you want to posit) but, really, who are you arguing with? I am certainly not arguing against dualism, only pointing out it's irrelevance here if we can account for consciousness without it which I believe (and HAVE argued that) we can.

> in another thread you say
>
> >All I have been saying is that, if consciousness can be explained in a
> >way that is consistent with what we know about the physical universe as
> >of now, without positing any additional entities, principles, factors
> >or what not that are not otherwise accounted for in the current
> >description(s) offered by physics, then there's no reason to posit them
> >or to argue that we need to do so or that one such posit trumps
> >another.
>
> the problem with this perspective is that physicists are themselves
> divided as to whether they must postulate a non-physical aspect of
> consciousness to account for the experimental results in quantum
> mechanics. the von Neumann Interpretation of QM postulates that the
> 'abstraktes ich' (abstract 'I') of the observer collapses the wave
> function.
>

No one says physicists have a complete understanding of the universe and certainly I don't! Moreover it is reasonable to try many different approaches in explaining things that continue to be mysterious to us. Even cognitive researchers have many different theories and strategies. That's what searching for answers is all about.

Note that I am not in the business of trying to parse the universe as physicists are. I am only asking whether we can reasonably account for consciousness as a function of the physical universe as it is currently known to us (to the extent that it is currently known, of course).

That there is disagreement at the farther reaches of theoretical physics and in other scientific arenas is not pertinent to this view. Science may discover something tomorrow which totally changes how we understand the universe and then that would have to be considered and incorporated, too. But that doesn't mean we should speculate about possibilities that go beyond the more parsimonious views that seem to work for us as of now.

You seem to be confusing metaphysical philosophy with theoretical physics and both of these with the question of what consciousness is.

> other interpretations do not postulate a non-physical aspect of
> consciousness to account for the experimental results; but, there is
> currently no experimental method for testing either type of
> interpretation.
>

But we are not debating what the universe consists of and there ARE experimental methods applicable to the study of consciousness and that is all that's at issue.

Arguing over quantum theory or string theory or membranes and so forth may or may not lead to a better understanding of physics, of the universe, but the question before us is not THAT but, rather, what will lead to a better understanding of consciousness!

If consciousness can be described in physicalist terms (that is if all the features we associate with consciousness can be accounted for as functions of physical processes) then why assume there must be something missing? But if one does make such an assumption, then it is for the assumer to say just what is missing, and to show that it IS missing!

This really is the crux of this ongoing debate. For all his petulance, PJ over on Analytic really hit the nail on the head when he tried to show that an account like Dennett's could not adequately explain the features we associate with subjective experience. Where we ran aground was that I asserted that Dennett's explanation does do that and that I had made an adequte case for it while PJ argued that it doesn't explain it (he went so far as to confusedly and mistakenly present Dennett as rejecting the reality of subjective experience!) and, of course, he claimed I hadn't made my case. (Since his view was the more popular one and I tend to be pretty insistent in these debates, I apparently rubbed the moderator there the wrong way and, of course, the rest is history.)

Annyway, that's where we kind of ground to a halt because, when the debate wasn't going back and forth around certain misunderstandings (like this business of what we each mean by "identity", say) it became a matter of his saying "you didn't make your case" and me saying "I did, even if you don't get it", etc., etc.

I don't really know how, when it's a matter of seeing something, you get beyond that point in discussions like this. We each see what we see and cannot be brought to see what we don't -- or don't want to see!

> consequently, all we can say at this point is that monism can't possibly
> be true unless von Neumann is wrong.
>

This isn't an argument about "monism", no matter how much you want to make it one. It's about consciousness, that's all.

I make no claims about "monism" except to say that I accept the physical picture of the world that has everything in it being made up, at a more basic level, of atomic constituents, whatever these turn out to be, pending any better description, and that, if consciousness can be shown to be physically derived like anything else we find in the universe, then there is no reason to posit that something has been left out or is yet to be discovered! This really isn't that hard a point to grasp, Joe.

I repeat: I am NOT arguing with you or with Bruce or with anyone about what the universe consists of, its true nature! I am only arguing about whether we can give an account of consciousness that shows it to be entirely the result of certain physical processes in brains (or their equivalents).

> someone like Dennett (or like you) who advocates a physicalist theory to
> explain the relation between experiencable phenomena and measurable
> phenomena is effectively prefacing any remarks by saying 'assuming von
> Neumann is wrong, my theory is ...'.
>
> Joe
>

I'll try this again. I am saying nothing about quantum theory or about physics in general beyond noting that the physical universe, as explained by the standard picture of atoms and whatever else is operating at their level, is acceptable to me (insofar as I, a non-physicist, grasps it) until something better comes along (nor do I think I am up to the task of finding that something better).

It is possible that for consciousness to exist there must be something else not currently recognized or grasped that is at work in the universe. But then lots of things are POSSIBLE. Just being possible doesn't mean it is the case so the issue isn't what is possible but what is likely, given what we currently know. And what we currently know indicates that minds are existentially dependent on brains and that that relation is, so far, fully accounted for by physical descriptions, including the descriptions of what certain physical processes are doing (the functions they perform).

In the end, as I have long said, THIS is about the best way to think about mind, about the mental. it is NOT about whether dualism or monism or idealism or any other metaphysical speculation is really true or not.

Here's a bottom line recap: If mind can be explained in terms of physical processes going on in brains, then why persist in imagining something else at work, something we haven't yet discovered?

SWM

=========================================
Need Something? Check here: http://ludwig.squarespace.com/wittrslinks/

4.

Scientific Theories of Consciousness

Posted by: "void" rgoteti@xxxxxxxxx   rgoteti

Thu Dec 24, 2009 9:09 pm (PST)

5.

consciousness

Posted by: "void" rgoteti@xxxxxxxxx   rgoteti

Thu Dec 24, 2009 9:15 pm (PST)



A comprehensive understanding of consciousness will likely require theories of many types. One might usefully and without contradiction accept a diversity of models that each in their own way aim respectively to explain the physical, neural, cognitive, functional, representational and higher-order aspects of consciousness. There is unlikely to be any single theoretical perspective that suffices for explaining all the features of consciousness that we wish to understand. Thus a synthetic and pluralistic approach may provide the best road to future progress.

http://plato.stanford.edu/symbols/septop.jpg

Recent Activity
Visit Your Group
Yahoo! News

Odd News

You won't believe

it, but it's true

Yahoo! Groups

Small Business Group

Ask questions,

share experiences

Yahoo! Groups

Mental Health Zone

Schizophrenia groups

Find support

Need to Reply?

Click one of the "Reply" links to respond to a specific message in the Daily Digest.

Create New Topic | Visit Your Group on the Web

Other related posts:

  • » [C] [Wittrs] Digest Number 84 - WittrsAMR