[ola] Re: Grammar Question!
- From: Martin Kathryn <kmartin@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- To: "ola@xxxxxxxxxxxxx" <ola@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
- Date: Fri, 24 Jan 2014 20:43:51 +0000
I don't think so. You can always clarify with "a mí. I feel like those are
examples of where English interferes with Spanish. Those darn IOP verbs!!
From: ola-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx [mailto:ola-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx] On Behalf Of
Tess Siemer
Sent: Friday, January 24, 2014 12:42 PM
To: ola@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
Subject: [ola] Re: Grammar Question!
But doesn't it sound strange or change the connotation if you do?
On Fri, Jan 24, 2014 at 12:38 PM, Martin Kathryn
<kmartin@xxxxxxxxxxxxx<mailto:kmartin@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>> wrote:
You could put the subject EITHER place and it would still be grammatically
correct. (As far as I know =))
From: ola-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx<mailto:ola-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
[mailto:ola-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx<mailto:ola-bounce@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>] On Behalf Of
Tess Siemer
Sent: Friday, January 24, 2014 12:11 PM
To: ola@xxxxxxxxxxxxx<mailto:ola@xxxxxxxxxxxxx>
Subject: [ola] Grammar Question!
Hi all,
So, in my 3/4 class yesterday we were talking about a common speech error and I
couldn't explain the "why" to them other than it sounding correct or incorrect
and I told them I would try to find out...
Here are our two sentences - we began by talking about the difference in saying
"me cae bien" and "me gusta" when talking about someone:
Javier me cae bien.
Me gusta Alma.
They want to know why the person's name comes first in the first example and
second in the second example, grammatically. Any answers out there?
Thanks!
Tess
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