[lit-ideas] Why French is the only logical language (Was: Creme brulee)

  • From: Jlsperanza@xxxxxxx
  • To: lit-ideas@xxxxxxxxxxxxx
  • Date: Sun, 14 Oct 2007 11:52:38 EDT

 



A GRICEAN REPLY TO THE FRENCH POLITICIAN
 
 
Andreas Ramos quotes from Wittgenstein:
 
"A French politician once wrote that it was a peculiarity of  the  French
language that in it words occur in the order in which one  thinks  them."

and comments:
 
>Only a monolingual person could have such an  opinion. He is too >close to 
his language to understand. 
 
There's a stronger Gricean argument against the cogency of the French  
politician's _ecriture_:
 
If we are (as Grice does) going to explain _words_ (and more important,  
meaning, discourse, expression) in terms of _thoughts_ or thinking processes  
(mainly _beliefs and desires_ to stick to the basics), *then* it is indeed  
circular, paradoxical, and idiotic, to try to analyse those 'thoughts' in terms 
 of 
'verbal issues' (like 'words', 'mental DISCOURSE', 'LANGUAGE of thought', and  
other ridiculities that the French of the Enlightment were prone to  conceive.
 
Grice was a 'functionalist' -- so he would not have access to the French  
politician's _thinking_ except via his (in this case) _writing_. And indeed  
there would be no conceivable test to _prove_ that his _writing_ is repeating  
his 
_thinking_. His _thinking_ 'defines' his _writing_, rather than 'reflects'  
it.
 
A generation before Grice, it was common to be an 'analytic behaviourist' a  
la Ryle. He would approach the politician in terms of this 'writing', again, 
and  avoid any reference to his 'thinking'. His famous example is Rodin's 
misnamed  sculpture, "Le Penseur". Personally, I could call it "The Bored One" 
--. 
There's  no evidence that Rodin meant the piece of bronze to be _thinking_. 
Thinking does  not *show*.
 
This is all alla Wittgenstein of the Second Period (Grice quotes from  
Wittgenstein, "No thought without expression of thought"), and it is obviuosly  
addressed to the Wittgenstein of the First Period who was in love with  
_Principia 
Mathematica_ where things like
 
     (x) Fx -> Gx
 
was _thought_ to represent not only the logical form of things like "All  
flutists are greedy", but the _content_ of the belief in an indicative-mode  
expression of that sentence:
 
By uttering "All flutists are greedy", the utterer intends her addressee to  
think that he (the utterer) thinks that all flutists are greedy.
 
Where the later clause would come up, again in logical form as:
 
B(U, (x)Fx -> Gx)
 
that is: there is a belief, held by U, with the content, "(x) Fx ->  Gx".
 
Note incidentally, that while Grice thought, using Grice's 'spirit of the  
letter', that grammar (ordinary discours) was "a pretty good guide to logical  
form", there is hardly evidence that this is the case for 'categorical'  
assertions like that.
 
Rather, if we were to 'replicate' the order of the logical form, component  
by component, we should be _writing_ (or saying) things like
 
"For all xs, if x is a flutist, x is greedy"
 
---
 
Now Wittgenstein is _obviously_ concerned with what he called the 'queer'  
syntax of German and Latin (he refers to French only a footnote).
 
Since my German is shaky, I would be interested to develop the case against  
Latin.
 
One problem is that Principia Mathematica was written in 1913, when Latin  
was already dead (except in the Vatican). The previous logicians -- writing in  
Latin -- would avoid symbolism and hardly spoke of 'discursus mentalis'.
 
One interesting exception here is William of Ockham. (Peter Geach has a  book 
on this, "Mental Acts" -- where he sees Ockham as a precursor of views like  
Fodor with his 'language of thought' hypothesis).
 
But Ockham was a nominalist, and he would hardly have subscribed to a  theory 
that multiplies 'languages' beyond necessity ('verbal language',  'language 
of thought').
 
Note that on top of it, if we were to try to analyse the logical form of  the 
language of thought we would require 'homuncular intentions', and this would  
be one of the worst _regressus ad infinitum_ we could dream in our worse  
nightmares. This was shown to me by R. Cummins in his "Meaning and  
Representation".
 
Again, I would welcome some sophisticated Latin sentences, if only to prove  
that Wittgenstein only attended the Faculty of Engineering at Manchester and 
was  NEVER very well versed (as Grice, Austin, and all the Oxonians of the Play 
Group  were) in the Classics (Greek -- hence Gricean, Grecian -- and  
Latin/Roman).

Cheers,
 
JLS



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